Nursing Elites

1. A client is postoperative following a hip replacement. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement to prevent dislocation of the prosthesis?

• A. Encourage the client to bend at the waist
• B. Maintain the client in a high-Fowler's position
• C. Place a pillow between the client's legs
• D. Avoid placing a pillow under the client's knees

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Placing a pillow between the client's legs is beneficial after hip replacement surgery to maintain proper alignment and prevent dislocation of the prosthesis. This position helps keep the hip in a neutral position, reducing the risk of dislocation. Encouraging the client to bend at the waist (Choice A) can increase the risk of hip dislocation. Maintaining the client in a high-Fowler's position (Choice B) and avoiding placing a pillow under the client's knees (Choice D) do not directly address the need to maintain proper alignment of the hip joint to prevent dislocation.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving intermittent enteral tube feedings. Which of the following places the client at risk for aspiration?

• A. A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease.
• B. Receiving a formula with high osmolarity.
• C. Sitting in a high-Fowler's position during the feeding.
• D. A residual of 65 mL 1 hour postprandial.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease. Clients with gastroesophageal reflux disease have a higher risk of aspiration during tube feeding due to the potential for reflux of stomach contents into the lungs. This increases the risk of aspiration pneumonia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. High osmolarity formulas may cause diarrhea but do not directly increase the risk of aspiration. Sitting in a high-Fowler's position actually reduces the risk of aspiration by promoting proper digestion and reducing the chance of regurgitation. A residual of 65 mL 1 hour postprandial is within an acceptable range and does not directly indicate a risk for aspiration.

3. What are the steps in managing a patient with a pressure ulcer?

• A. Clean the wound and apply a hydrocolloid dressing
• B. Debride necrotic tissue and apply antibiotics
• C. Apply an alginate dressing and elevate the affected area
• D. Use moisture-retentive dressings and reposition frequently

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clean the wound and apply a hydrocolloid dressing. This step is crucial in managing a pressure ulcer as it helps protect the ulcer from infection and promotes healing by creating a moist environment conducive to tissue repair. Choice B, debriding necrotic tissue and applying antibiotics, is more suitable for managing infected pressure ulcers but not as the initial step. Choice C, applying an alginate dressing and elevating the affected area, may be part of the management but is not the initial step. Choice D, using moisture-retentive dressings and repositioning frequently, is important for prevention but not the first step in managing an existing pressure ulcer.

4. A nurse is collecting data from a client who has myasthenia gravis (MG). Which of the following images should the nurse identify as an indication that the client is experiencing ptosis?

• A. Drooping eyelids
• B. Unequal pupils
• C. Facial twitching
• D. Facial droop

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Drooping eyelids.' Ptosis, characterized by drooping of the eyelid, is a classic symptom seen in myasthenia gravis. This occurs due to muscle weakness, particularly in the muscles that control eyelid movement. Choice B, 'Unequal pupils,' is not associated with ptosis and may indicate other neurological issues. Choice C, 'Facial twitching,' is not a typical sign of ptosis but could be related to other conditions like nerve irritation. Choice D, 'Facial droop,' is more commonly seen in conditions affecting the facial nerve, like Bell's palsy, and is not a characteristic feature of myasthenia gravis.

5. What should be included in dietary teaching for a client with chronic kidney disease?

• A. Increase potassium-rich foods in the diet
• B. Limit potassium and phosphorus intake
• C. Increase intake of protein-rich foods
• D. Increase fluid intake to prevent dehydration

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to limit potassium and phosphorus intake for a client with chronic kidney disease. Excessive potassium and phosphorus can be harmful to individuals with compromised kidney function. Option A is incorrect because increasing potassium-rich foods can exacerbate hyperkalemia in individuals with kidney disease. Option C may not be ideal as excessive protein intake can put extra strain on the kidneys. Option D is not the priority; while adequate fluid intake is important, it is not the primary focus when teaching dietary considerations for chronic kidney disease.

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