ATI LPN
ATI Comprehensive Predictor PN
1. A client is postoperative following a hip replacement. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement to prevent dislocation of the prosthesis?
- A. Encourage the client to bend at the waist
- B. Maintain the client in a high-Fowler's position
- C. Place a pillow between the client's legs
- D. Avoid placing a pillow under the client's knees
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Placing a pillow between the client's legs is beneficial after hip replacement surgery to maintain proper alignment and prevent dislocation of the prosthesis. This position helps keep the hip in a neutral position, reducing the risk of dislocation. Encouraging the client to bend at the waist (Choice A) can increase the risk of hip dislocation. Maintaining the client in a high-Fowler's position (Choice B) and avoiding placing a pillow under the client's knees (Choice D) do not directly address the need to maintain proper alignment of the hip joint to prevent dislocation.
2. A nurse is educating a client on how to use a cane due to left-leg weakness. What should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Use the cane on the stronger side
- B. Advance the cane and the weaker leg at the same time
- C. Use the cane on the weaker side
- D. Advance the cane 30 to 45 cm (12-18 in) with each step
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to use the cane on the stronger side. By doing so, the client will have better support and balance. Choice B is incorrect because advancing the cane and the weaker leg at the same time may lead to instability and falls. Choice C is incorrect as using the cane on the weaker side does not provide optimal support. Choice D is incorrect as advancing the cane 30 to 45 cm (12-18 in) with each step is not a standard recommendation for cane use.
3. In the emergency department, a nurse is performing triage for multiple clients following a disaster in the community. To which of the following types of injuries should the nurse assign the highest priority?
- A. Below-the-knee amputation.
- B. 10 cm (4 in) laceration.
- C. Fractured tibia.
- D. 95% full-thickness body burn.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A below-the-knee amputation requires immediate attention due to the risk of hemorrhage and shock, making it the highest priority. This type of injury can lead to significant blood loss and impaired perfusion, which can be life-threatening if not addressed promptly. While a 10 cm laceration, a fractured tibia, and a 95% full-thickness body burn are serious injuries requiring urgent care, they do not pose the same immediate threat to life as a below-the-knee amputation. The laceration may require suturing to control bleeding and prevent infection, the fractured tibia needs stabilization to prevent further damage and pain, and the burn necessitates immediate management to prevent complications, but they are not as acutely life-threatening as the amputation.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled for a bronchoscopy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. The client is anxious about the procedure.
- B. The client has not eaten for 8 hours.
- C. The client has a reported allergy to shellfish.
- D. The client has a platelet count of 100,000/mm³.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A platelet count of 100,000/mm³ is low and increases the risk of bleeding during the bronchoscopy. This finding should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and possible intervention. Choices A, B, and C are not as critical in this situation. Anxiety about the procedure is common and can be managed with appropriate interventions. Not eating for 8 hours is a standard pre-procedure requirement to prevent aspiration during sedation. A reported allergy to shellfish is important to note but is not directly related to the risk of complications during a bronchoscopy.
5. A nurse is collecting data from a school-age child who has sustained a skull fracture. Which of the following is a manifestation of increased intracranial pressure?
- A. Nausea
- B. Confusion about own name
- C. Rapid pulse
- D. Vomiting
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Confusion, especially about one's own name, is a sign of increased intracranial pressure and should be addressed. Nausea and vomiting are common symptoms of increased intracranial pressure, but confusion about personal information is a more specific and critical indication that requires immediate attention. Rapid pulse may be a possible response to increased intracranial pressure, but it is not as specific as confusion about own name in this scenario.
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