ATI LPN
ATI Comprehensive Predictor PN
1. A client is postoperative following a hip replacement. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement to prevent dislocation of the prosthesis?
- A. Encourage the client to bend at the waist
- B. Maintain the client in a high-Fowler's position
- C. Place a pillow between the client's legs
- D. Avoid placing a pillow under the client's knees
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Placing a pillow between the client's legs is beneficial after hip replacement surgery to maintain proper alignment and prevent dislocation of the prosthesis. This position helps keep the hip in a neutral position, reducing the risk of dislocation. Encouraging the client to bend at the waist (Choice A) can increase the risk of hip dislocation. Maintaining the client in a high-Fowler's position (Choice B) and avoiding placing a pillow under the client's knees (Choice D) do not directly address the need to maintain proper alignment of the hip joint to prevent dislocation.
2. What are the key differences between hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia?
- A. Hypoglycemia: Sweating, trembling; Hyperglycemia: Frequent urination, thirst
- B. Hypoglycemia: Increased thirst; Hyperglycemia: Sweating, confusion
- C. Hypoglycemia: Increased appetite; Hyperglycemia: Blurred vision
- D. Hypoglycemia: Dizziness; Hyperglycemia: Low blood pressure
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Hypoglycemia typically presents with sweating and trembling, while hyperglycemia is characterized by frequent urination and thirst. Therefore, the correct key differences between hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia are that hypoglycemia includes symptoms like sweating and trembling, while hyperglycemia involves symptoms such as frequent urination and thirst. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately represent the characteristic symptoms of hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia, as stated in the question.
3. How should a healthcare provider manage a patient with hyperkalemia?
- A. Administer insulin and glucose
- B. Restrict potassium intake
- C. Monitor ECG
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In managing hyperkalemia, it is essential to administer insulin and glucose to shift potassium into the cells, restrict potassium intake to prevent further elevation of serum levels, and monitor the ECG for signs of potassium-induced cardiac effects. Therefore, the correct answer is D, as all of the provided actions are important in the management of hyperkalemia. Choice A alone is not sufficient as it only addresses shifting potassium intracellularly without preventing further elevation. Choice B alone is not enough as it does not address the immediate need to lower serum potassium levels. Choice C alone is insufficient as it only monitors for cardiac effects without addressing potassium levels or shifting mechanisms.
4. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. International normalized ratio (INR) of 2.5
- B. Platelet count of 180,000/mm³
- C. Prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds
- D. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 30 seconds
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds is below the therapeutic range for warfarin and indicates a need for dosage adjustment. The correct answer is C. A normal International normalized ratio (INR) for a client on warfarin therapy is usually between 2.0 to 3.0; therefore, an INR of 2.5 is within the expected range. A platelet count of 180,000/mm³ is within the normal range (150,000 to 450,000/mm³) and does not require immediate reporting. A partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 30 seconds is also within the normal range (25-35 seconds) and does not indicate a need for urgent action.
5. What are the risk factors for pressure ulcer development?
- A. Immobility and poor nutrition
- B. Obesity and diabetes
- C. Dehydration and malnutrition
- D. Use of assistive devices and prolonged bedrest
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: The correct answer is immobility and poor nutrition. Immobility can lead to constant pressure on certain areas of the body, while poor nutrition can impair tissue repair and regeneration, both contributing to the development of pressure ulcers. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while obesity, diabetes, dehydration, malnutrition, use of assistive devices, and prolonged bedrest can impact skin integrity and wound healing, they are not the primary risk factors specifically associated with pressure ulcer development.
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