Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has been taking isoniazid and rifampin for 3 weeks for the treatment of active pulmonary tuberculosis (TB). The client reports his urine is an orange color. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

• A. Stop taking the isoniazid for 3 days and the discoloration should go away.
• B. Rifampin can turn body fluids orange.
• C. I'll make an appointment for you to see the provider this afternoon.
• D. Isoniazid can cause bladder irritation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Rifampin can turn body fluids orange.' Rifampin is known to cause orange discoloration of body fluids, including urine. This side effect is harmless and does not indicate a need to stop the medication. Choice A is incorrect because stopping isoniazid will not resolve the orange urine discoloration caused by rifampin. Choice C is unnecessary at this point since the orange urine is a known side effect of rifampin and does not require an urgent provider visit. Choice D is incorrect because bladder irritation is not typically associated with isoniazid.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer furosemide 4 mg/kg/day PO divided into 2 equal doses daily to a toddler who weighs 22 lb. How many mg should the nurse administer per dose? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number)

• A. 20 mg
• B. 15 mg
• C. 10 mg
• D. 30 mg

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the dosage per dose, first, convert the toddler's weight from pounds to kilograms: 22 lb / 2.2 = 10 kg. Then, multiply the weight by the dosage: 4 mg × 10 kg = 40 mg/day. Since this total daily dose is divided into 2 equal doses, the nurse should administer 20 mg per dose. Therefore, the correct answer is 20 mg. Choice B (15 mg) is incorrect because it does not account for the correct weight conversion and dosage calculation. Choice C (10 mg) is incorrect as it only considers the weight conversion but doesn't multiply it by the dosage. Choice D (30 mg) is incorrect as it miscalculates the dosage by not dividing the total daily dose into 2 equal parts.

3. A nurse is providing teaching to a newly licensed nurse about administering morphine via IV bolus to a client. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Respiratory depression can occur within 7 minutes after the morphine is administered.
• B. The morphine will peak within a few minutes.
• C. Withhold the morphine if the client has a respiratory rate less than 16/min.
• D. Administer the morphine over 2 minutes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because respiratory depression is a significant risk when administering morphine, and it can occur within 7 minutes after administration. This information is crucial for the nurse to recognize and respond promptly. Choice B is incorrect because the peak effect of morphine via IV bolus is typically reached within a few minutes, not specifically 10 minutes. Choice C is incorrect because withholding morphine based solely on a respiratory rate less than 16/min may not be appropriate without considering other factors such as pain level, oxygen saturation, and overall respiratory status. Choice D is incorrect because administering morphine over 2 minutes may not prevent respiratory depression if it occurs rapidly after administration. Nurses should be vigilant for signs of respiratory depression regardless of the administration duration.

4. When administering subcutaneous epinephrine for a client experiencing anaphylaxis, what adverse effect should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Hyperthermia
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Tachycardia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct adverse effect to monitor for when administering subcutaneous epinephrine for anaphylaxis is tachycardia. Epinephrine stimulates adrenergic receptors, leading to an increased heart rate (tachycardia). Hypotension (Choice A) is less likely due to the vasoconstrictive effects of epinephrine. Hyperthermia (Choice B) and hypoglycemia (Choice C) are not commonly associated with epinephrine administration for anaphylaxis.

5. A nurse is planning to administer chlorothiazide 20 mg/kg/day PO divided equally and administered twice daily for a toddler who weighs 28.6 lb. The amount available is chlorothiazide oral suspension 250 mg/5 mL. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose? (Round to the nearest tenth)

• A. 2.6 mL
• B. 2.63 mL
• C. 2.7 mL
• D. 2.2 mL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To find the dose per administration, first convert the toddler's weight to kg: 28.6 lb ÷ 2.2 = 13 kg. Then calculate the total daily dose: 20 mg/kg × 13 kg = 260 mg/day. Since it is divided into two doses, each dose is 130 mg. The concentration of the oral suspension is 250 mg/5 mL = 50 mg/mL. Therefore, to find the volume needed per dose, divide the dose by the concentration: 130 mg ÷ 50 mg/mL = 2.6 mL per dose. Hence, the nurse should administer 2.6 mL per dose. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately calculate the dosage of chlorothiazide needed per dose based on the toddler's weight and the concentration of the oral suspension.

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