ATI LPN
Pharmacology for LPN
1. A client with a diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) has been placed on bed rest. The LPN/LVN should reinforce which instruction to the client to prevent complications?
- A. Perform ankle pumps and circles every 1 to 2 hours.
- B. Use a heating pad to relieve pain in the affected leg.
- C. Keep the affected leg flat and avoid elevation.
- D. Wear tight compression stockings to prevent swelling.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Performing ankle pumps and circles every 1 to 2 hours is crucial for a client with DVT on bed rest. These exercises promote venous return, preventing stasis and reducing the risk of complications such as pulmonary embolism. Ankle pumps help activate the calf muscle pump, assisting in propelling blood back to the heart and preventing blood clots from forming or worsening. Choice B is incorrect because using a heating pad can increase blood flow to the area, potentially dislodging a clot. Choice C is incorrect because elevation helps reduce swelling and improve venous return. Choice D is incorrect because although compression stockings can be beneficial, they are not the most important instruction for preventing complications in this scenario.
2. The nurse is preparing to administer an intravenous dose of potassium chloride to a client with hypokalemia. The nurse should monitor for which potential complication?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Hypernatremia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When administering potassium chloride to a client with hypokalemia, the nurse should monitor for hyperkalemia. Potassium chloride supplementation aims to increase potassium levels in individuals with hypokalemia. However, excessive administration can lead to hyperkalemia, which can be a serious and potentially life-threatening complication. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent this adverse outcome. Hypokalemia (Choice B) is the condition being treated, so it is not a complication of treatment. Hypernatremia (Choice C) refers to high sodium levels and is not directly related to the administration of potassium chloride. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is an elevated calcium level and is not a common complication associated with potassium chloride administration in hypokalemia.
3. A client with a history of heart failure is admitted with a diagnosis of pulmonary edema. Which intervention should the LPN/LVN expect to assist with first?
- A. Administer a diuretic as prescribed.
- B. Place the client in a high Fowler's position.
- C. Prepare the client for intubation.
- D. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a client with pulmonary edema, placing them in a high Fowler's position is the priority intervention. This position helps to improve ventilation and oxygenation by decreasing venous return, reducing the workload on the heart, and facilitating fluid redistribution from the lungs. It is crucial to optimize respiratory function and oxygenation before considering other interventions like administering medications, preparing for intubation, or inserting a urinary catheter. Administering a diuretic, preparing for intubation, or inserting a urinary catheter may be necessary but should follow the priority of improving oxygenation through positioning.
4. A nurse is assessing a client who has a new prescription for albuterol. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Dry mouth
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Weight gain
- D. Drowsiness
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tachycardia. Albuterol is a bronchodilator medication commonly used to treat respiratory conditions such as asthma. Tachycardia, an increased heart rate, can be a potential side effect of albuterol, indicating excessive stimulation of the beta receptors. This side effect should be reported to the healthcare provider promptly to assess the need for further intervention or adjustment of the treatment plan. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because dry mouth, weight gain, and drowsiness are not typically associated with albuterol use and are less likely to require immediate reporting compared to tachycardia.
5. Why should the client diagnosed with rheumatic heart disease be advised to notify the dentist before dental procedures?
- A. The client requires prophylactic antibiotics before treatment.
- B. The client may experience dysrhythmias with high-speed drills.
- C. The client may have an adverse reaction to lidocaine with epinephrine.
- D. The client may develop heart failure during stressful events.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Clients with rheumatic heart disease are at risk for infective endocarditis, a serious infection of the heart lining or valves. They need prophylactic antibiotics before invasive procedures, including dental work, to prevent this life-threatening complication. While dysrhythmias with high-speed drills, adverse reactions to local anesthesia, and the risk of heart failure during stressful events are all concerns for clients with heart conditions, the primary reason for notifying the dentist before dental procedures in rheumatic heart disease is the need for prophylactic antibiotics to prevent infective endocarditis.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access