Nursing Elites

1. A client with a diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) has been placed on bed rest. The LPN/LVN should reinforce which instruction to the client to prevent complications?

• A. Perform ankle pumps and circles every 1 to 2 hours.
• B. Use a heating pad to relieve pain in the affected leg.
• C. Keep the affected leg flat and avoid elevation.
• D. Wear tight compression stockings to prevent swelling.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Performing ankle pumps and circles every 1 to 2 hours is crucial for a client with DVT on bed rest. These exercises promote venous return, preventing stasis and reducing the risk of complications such as pulmonary embolism. Ankle pumps help activate the calf muscle pump, assisting in propelling blood back to the heart and preventing blood clots from forming or worsening. Choice B is incorrect because using a heating pad can increase blood flow to the area, potentially dislodging a clot. Choice C is incorrect because elevation helps reduce swelling and improve venous return. Choice D is incorrect because although compression stockings can be beneficial, they are not the most important instruction for preventing complications in this scenario.

2. When teaching a client with a new prescription for spironolactone, which instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
• B. Avoid consuming grapefruit juice.
• C. Take the medication with food.
• D. Monitor for signs of hyperkalemia.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to monitor for signs of hyperkalemia when taking spironolactone since it is a potassium-sparing diuretic. Hyperkalemia is a potential adverse effect due to the medication's mechanism of action. Advising the client to increase potassium-rich foods (Choice A) would be incorrect as it can further elevate potassium levels, which could lead to hyperkalemia. Avoiding grapefruit juice (Choice B) is not directly related to spironolactone use. Though taking the medication with food (Choice C) can help reduce gastrointestinal upset, it is not the most critical instruction when initiating spironolactone therapy.

3. A client with a history of angina pectoris complains of substernal chest pain. The nurse checks the client's blood pressure and administers nitroglycerin 0.4 mg sublingually. Five minutes later, the client is still experiencing chest pain. If the blood pressure is still stable, what should the nurse do next?

• A. Administer another nitroglycerin tablet.
• B. Apply 1 to 3 L/minute of oxygen via nasal cannula.
• C. Call for a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) to be performed.
• D. Wait an additional 5 minutes, then give a second nitroglycerin tablet.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client with angina pectoris continues to experience chest pain despite initial nitroglycerin administration and stable blood pressure, the appropriate next step is to administer another nitroglycerin tablet. This helps to further dilate coronary arteries, improving blood flow to the heart muscle and relieving chest pain. Applying oxygen via nasal cannula (Choice B) may be necessary if the client displays signs of respiratory distress or hypoxemia, but in this case, the priority is addressing the unresolved chest pain. Calling for a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) (Choice C) is important to assess for any changes in the client's cardiac status, but administering another nitroglycerin tablet takes precedence in managing the ongoing chest pain. Waiting an additional 5 minutes before giving a second nitroglycerin tablet (Choice D) may delay symptom relief and potentially worsen the client's condition if the chest pain persists.

4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has been taking furosemide. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Dry cough
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Hypokalemia is a known side effect of furosemide, a loop diuretic. Furosemide causes increased excretion of potassium in the urine, leading to low potassium levels in the body which can result in serious complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Therefore, any signs or symptoms of hypokalemia should be promptly reported to the healthcare provider for appropriate management. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because weight gain, dry cough, and increased appetite are not typically associated with furosemide use and are not concerning side effects that require immediate reporting to the provider.

5. The nurse is preparing a client for discharge after a myocardial infarction (MI). Which instruction is most important for the nurse to reinforce with the client?

• A. Avoid engaging in sexual activity for at least 6 weeks.
• B. Engage in moderate physical activity daily.
• C. Take prescribed medications even if you feel well.
• D. Return to work only when medically cleared.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most critical instruction for a client after a myocardial infarction is to continue taking prescribed medications even if they feel well. This is essential in preventing another myocardial infarction or other complications. Discontinuing medications prematurely can be detrimental to the client's recovery and may increase the risk of further cardiovascular events. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because engaging in sexual activity, physical activity, or returning to work are important aspects of the client's recovery, but not as crucial as ensuring medication compliance to prevent further cardiac issues.

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