Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is NOT a recognized mode of natural selection?

• A. Directional selection (favoring one extreme trait value on a spectrum)
• B. Disruptive selection (favoring both extreme trait values on a spectrum)
• C. Stabilizing selection (favoring the average trait value on a spectrum)
• D. Sexual selection (selection based on mate choice that influences reproductive success)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A) Directional selection is a recognized mode of natural selection where one extreme trait value on a spectrum is favored over others, leading to a shift in the average trait value over time. B) Disruptive selection is a recognized mode of natural selection where both extreme trait values on a spectrum are favored over the average trait value, potentially causing the population to split into distinct groups. C) Stabilizing selection is a recognized mode of natural selection favoring the average trait value on a spectrum over extreme values, resulting in reduced genetic diversity. D) Sexual selection differs from traditional natural selection modes as it involves mate choice and competition for mates, not direct selection pressure on traits affecting survival and reproduction in the environment. Sexual selection can drive the evolution of traits enhancing an individual's attractiveness for mating purposes.

2. Which of the following is the MOST common symptom of angina pectoris, a condition related to insufficient blood flow to the heart?

• A. Fever and chills.
• B. Chest pain or discomfort.
• C. Sudden onset of severe shortness of breath.
• D. Numbness or tingling in the extremities.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Chest pain or discomfort is the most common symptom of angina pectoris. This pain is often described as squeezing, pressure, heaviness, tightness, or pain in the chest. Fever and chills, sudden onset of severe shortness of breath, and numbness or tingling in the extremities are not typical symptoms of angina pectoris. The pain associated with angina is usually triggered by physical or emotional stress and typically subsides with rest or medication, distinguishing it from other conditions.

3. Which force opposes the relative motion between surfaces in contact?

• A. Tension force
• B. Frictional force
• C. Gravitational force
• D. Magnetic force

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Frictional force. Frictional force opposes the relative motion between surfaces in contact. When two surfaces are in contact and one tries to slide over the other, the frictional force resists this motion, making it harder for the surfaces to move relative to each other. Choice A, tension force, is incorrect because tension force is a force transmitted through a string, rope, cable, or wire when it is pulled tight by forces acting from opposite ends. Choice C, gravitational force, is incorrect as it is the force of attraction between two masses. Choice D, magnetic force, is incorrect as it is the force exerted between magnetic objects.

4. Muscle tissues often require quick bursts of energy. As a result, which of the following organelles would be most likely to be found in higher than normal amounts in muscle cells?

• A. ribosomes
• B. chloroplasts
• C. vacuoles
• D. mitochondria

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Muscle tissues require quick bursts of energy for activities such as contraction and relaxation. Mitochondria are known as the powerhouse of the cell, producing energy in the form of ATP through cellular respiration. Therefore, muscle cells would require higher amounts of mitochondria to meet their energy demands. Ribosomes are involved in protein synthesis and are not directly related to energy production. Chloroplasts are found in plant cells and are responsible for photosynthesis, not in animal muscle cells. Vacuoles are primarily involved in storage, maintaining turgor pressure, and digestion, but they are not the main organelles involved in energy production.

5. What initiates the process of coagulation?

• A. When blood changes from a gel to liquid form.
• B. Begins instantly after a blood vessel has been damaged.
• C. A simple single-phase response of the blood drying upon contact with the air.
• D. Also known as clotting, or the formation of fibrin.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The process of coagulation, also known as blood clotting, begins instantly after a blood vessel has been damaged. When a blood vessel is injured, the body quickly responds by initiating a cascade of reactions to form a blood clot, which helps to stop bleeding and promote healing. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because coagulation does not occur just when blood changes from a gel to liquid form, it is not a response of blood drying upon contact with air, and it is not simply the formation of fibrin. The primary trigger for coagulation is vascular injury.

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