ati teas practice science test ATI TEAS Practice Science Test - Nursing Elites
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Nursing Elites

ATI TEAS 7

ATI TEAS Practice Science Test

1. A person wakes up with a fever. The body begins its response to locate the origin of the problem and fix it. What type of feedback mechanism is this?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: This scenario describes a negative feedback mechanism. When the body detects a fever, it initiates responses to lower the temperature back to normal levels. Negative feedback mechanisms work to counteract changes and maintain homeostasis in the body. Choice A ('Equal') is incorrect as feedback mechanisms aim to restore balance, not maintain an equal state. Choice C ('Neutral') is incorrect as it does not describe the corrective nature of negative feedback. Choice D ('Positive') is incorrect as it would amplify the fever rather than regulate it.

2. An atom has 17 protons, 20 neutrons, and 17 electrons. What is its mass, in amu?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The atomic mass of an atom is the sum of the protons and neutrons in its nucleus. In this case, the atom has 17 protons and 20 neutrons, totaling 37 particles in the nucleus. Electrons are not considered in the atomic mass calculation as their mass is negligible compared to protons and neutrons. Therefore, the mass of the atom in atomic mass units (amu) is 37.

3. What is the function of the pharynx?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Allow food and air to pass into the body.' The pharynx serves as a common pathway for both food and air. It connects the nasal cavity and mouth to the larynx and esophagus, enabling the passage of both food and air into their respective pathways. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately describe the function of the pharynx. Option B is incorrect because the warming and moistening of air primarily occur in the nasal cavity and not in the pharynx. Option C is incorrect as the creation of a chest cavity is mainly related to the thoracic cavity, not the pharynx. Option D is also incorrect as the structural support to the alveolar region is provided by other structures like the alveoli and surrounding tissues, not the pharynx.

4. How do killer T cells recognize infected cells?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Killer T cells recognize infected cells by detecting viral proteins displayed on the surface of these cells. The T cells possess receptors specifically designed to identify these viral proteins, allowing them to target and eliminate the infected cells. Choice A is incorrect because B cells are not directly involved in the recognition process of infected cells by killer T cells. Choice B is incorrect because tiny bits of the virus's RNA being left around the cell is not how killer T cells primarily recognize infected cells. Choice C is incorrect because while macrophages play a role in immune responses, they do not directly assist in the recognition of infected cells by killer T cells.

5. If a doctor diagnoses a patient with an impaired posterior pituitary gland, which of the following symptoms related to kidney function does the patient display?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When the posterior pituitary gland is impaired, there is decreased secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). ADH plays a crucial role in regulating water reabsorption by the kidneys. A deficiency of ADH leads to the inability of the kidneys to concentrate urine, resulting in the production of dilute urine. Therefore, 'Concentrated urine' is the correct symptom associated with impaired posterior pituitary gland. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Thirst is more commonly associated with diabetes insipidus, tiredness could be a general symptom but not specifically related to kidney function, and weight gain is not a typical symptom of impaired posterior pituitary gland affecting kidney function.

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