Nursing Elites

1. Which cells myelinate neurons in the PNS?

• A. Oligodendrocytes
• B. Astrocytes
• C. Schwann cells
• D. Microglia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Schwann cells are the glial cells responsible for myelinating neurons in the peripheral nervous system (PNS). They form the myelin sheath around axons, which helps in the conduction of electrical impulses. Oligodendrocytes, on the other hand, myelinate neurons in the central nervous system (CNS). Astrocytes primarily provide support for neuronal function by regulating the chemical environment around neurons and maintaining the blood-brain barrier. Microglia are part of the immune response in the CNS, where they act as the resident macrophages, playing a role in immune surveillance and response to injury or disease. Therefore, the correct answer is Schwann cells (Choice C) as they specifically myelinate neurons in the PNS, differentiating them from the other cell types mentioned in the choices.

2. Which hormone is released by the ovaries to mature an egg?

• A. Estrogen
• B. Luteinizing Hormone
• C. Progesterone
• D. Testosterone

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Estrogen (Choice A). Estrogen is produced by the ovaries and is essential for the maturation of eggs. It plays a crucial role in the development of secondary sexual characteristics, regulation of the menstrual cycle, and preparation of the uterus for implantation of a fertilized egg. Luteinizing Hormone (Choice B) is released by the pituitary gland and plays a role in ovulation, not the maturation of eggs. Progesterone (Choice C) is produced by the ovaries after ovulation and is important for preparing the uterus for pregnancy, not maturing eggs. Testosterone (Choice D) is a male sex hormone primarily produced in the testes, and while small amounts are also produced in the ovaries, it is not the hormone responsible for maturing eggs.

3. What is the process of removing waste products from the cell called?

• A. Exocytosis
• B. Endocytosis
• C. Phagocytosis
• D. Pinocytosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A) Exocytosis is the process by which cells expel waste products or other substances by fusing a vesicle containing the waste with the cell membrane, releasing its contents outside the cell. This process is essential for maintaining cellular homeostasis by removing waste products from the cell. B) Endocytosis is the process by which cells take in substances by engulfing them in a vesicle formed from the cell membrane. This process is the opposite of exocytosis and is used to bring substances into the cell. C) Phagocytosis is a type of endocytosis where cells engulf solid particles or other cells to form a vesicle called a phagosome. This process is used by immune cells to engulf and destroy pathogens. D) Pinocytosis is a type of endocytosis where cells engulf fluids and dissolved solutes. This process allows cells to take in nutrients.

4. Which of the following chambers of the heart receives blood returning from the lungs during pulmonary circulation?

• A. left atrium
• B. right atrium
• C. left ventricle
• D. right ventricle

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, the left atrium. During pulmonary circulation, oxygenated blood returns from the lungs to the heart and enters the left atrium through the pulmonary veins. The left atrium then contracts, pushing this oxygen-rich blood into the left ventricle. The left ventricle subsequently pumps this oxygenated blood out to the rest of the body through the aorta. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the right atrium receives deoxygenated blood from the body, the left ventricle receives oxygenated blood from the left atrium, and the right ventricle pumps deoxygenated blood to the lungs for oxygenation, respectively.

5. The Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium describes a population that is:

• A. Undergoing rapid evolution due to strong directional selection.
• B. Not evolving and at genetic equilibrium with stable allele frequencies.
• C. Experiencing a founder effect leading to a reduction in genetic diversity.
• D. Dominated by a single homozygous genotype that eliminates all variation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium describes a theoretical population in which allele frequencies remain constant from generation to generation, indicating that the population is not evolving. This equilibrium occurs under specific conditions: no mutation, no gene flow, random mating, a large population size, and no natural selection. In this scenario, all genotypes are in proportion to the allele frequencies, and genetic diversity is maintained. Options A, C, and D do not accurately describe a population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. Option A suggests rapid evolution due to strong directional selection, which would disrupt the equilibrium. Option C mentions a founder effect, which can reduce genetic diversity but is not a characteristic of a population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. Option D describes a population dominated by a single homozygous genotype, which also does not align with the genetic diversity seen in a population at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.

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