how many daughter cells are formed from one parent cell during meiosis
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ATI TEAS 7

ATI TEAS Science

1. How many daughter cells are formed from one parent cell during meiosis?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During meiosis, one parent cell produces four genetically distinct daughter cells. This occurs through two rounds of cell division, resulting in four haploid cells with half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell. Each daughter cell is genetically unique due to processes like crossing over and independent assortment during meiosis. Choice A is incorrect because meiosis results in multiple daughter cells. Choice B is incorrect because meiosis yields more daughter cells. Choice C is incorrect because meiosis produces four, not three, daughter cells.

2. Why is the simple columnar epithelium lining the small intestine crucial?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The simple columnar epithelium lining the small intestine is crucial for absorption. This type of epithelium is specialized for absorption due to its tall and closely packed cells, which increase the surface area available for nutrient absorption. The primary function of the small intestine is to absorb nutrients from digested food, and the simple columnar epithelium's structure aids in this process by providing a large surface area for absorption. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because movement, support, and insulation are not primary functions associated with the simple columnar epithelium in the small intestine. While these functions are essential in other tissues or organs, absorption is the key role of the simple columnar epithelium in the small intestine.

3. What is the term for the first exposure to a specific pathogen, leading to the development of an initial immune response?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Primary immune response. The primary immune response refers to the initial encounter with a specific pathogen, which triggers the development of the first immune response by the immune system. This response involves activating immune cells like B cells and T cells to produce antibodies and memory cells specific to that pathogen. On the other hand, the secondary immune response occurs upon re-exposure to the same pathogen and is characterized by a faster, stronger, and more effective immune response due to the presence of memory cells from the primary response. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. The secondary immune response is the response upon re-exposure, hypersensitivity reactions are exaggerated immune responses to antigens, and immunological tolerance is the immune system's ability to recognize and tolerate self-antigens without mounting an immune response.

4. Which of the following factors does NOT affect the rate of dissolution of a solute in a solvent?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pressure does not affect the rate of dissolution of a solute in a solvent. The factors that affect the rate of dissolution include temperature, surface area, and particle size. Temperature generally increases the rate of dissolution by providing more energy for the solute particles to break apart and mix with the solvent. Increasing the surface area of the solute by grinding it into smaller particles or increasing its contact area with the solvent can also speed up dissolution. Similarly, reducing the particle size of the solute can increase the rate of dissolution by providing more surface area for interaction with the solvent. Pressure, however, does not have a significant impact on the dissolution process and is not a factor that influences the rate at which a solute dissolves in a solvent.

5. What is kwashiorkor, a protein deficiency disease, characterized by?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Kwashiorkor is a severe acute malnutrition condition resulting from insufficient dietary protein intake. It is characterized by symptoms such as edema, skin lesions, an enlarged liver with fatty infiltrates, and notably, muscle wasting. Muscle wasting occurs as the body breaks down muscle tissue to obtain essential amino acids for vital functions. Night blindness (option B) is associated with vitamin A deficiency, scurvy (option C) results from a lack of vitamin C, and rickets (option D) is caused by a deficiency in vitamin D, calcium, or phosphate.

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