how do the killer t cells recognize infected cells
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ATI TEAS 7

ATI TEAS Practice Science Test

1. How do killer T cells recognize infected cells?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Killer T cells recognize infected cells by detecting viral proteins displayed on the surface of these cells. The T cells possess receptors specifically designed to identify these viral proteins, allowing them to target and eliminate the infected cells. Choice A is incorrect because B cells are not directly involved in the recognition process of infected cells by killer T cells. Choice B is incorrect because tiny bits of the virus's RNA being left around the cell is not how killer T cells primarily recognize infected cells. Choice C is incorrect because while macrophages play a role in immune responses, they do not directly assist in the recognition of infected cells by killer T cells.

2. What is the function of the pons?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct function of the pons is to relay messages from the cortex to the cerebellum. The pons acts as a bridge between different brain regions, facilitating communication and coordination of movements. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. The pons is not the center for emotion and motivation, does not control hormone production, and is not primarily responsible for involuntary actions like breathing. Understanding the role of the pons in relaying messages between brain regions is crucial for comprehending its function in the central nervous system.

3. Four different groups of the same species of peas are grown and exposed to differing levels of sunlight, water, and fertilizer as documented in the table below. The data in the water and fertilizer columns indicate how many times the peas are watered or fertilized per week, respectively. Group 2 is the only group that withered. What is a reasonable explanation for this occurrence? Group Sunlight Water Fertilizer 1 partial sun 4 mL/hr 1 2 full sun 7 mL/hr 1 3 no sun 14 mL/hr 2 4 partial sun 3 mL/hr 2

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Group 2, the only group that withered, was exposed to full sun. This suggests that the species of peas being studied does not thrive in full sunlight, leading to its deterioration compared to the other groups with different light exposures. Choices A, B, and C are not the correct explanations for the withering of Group 2. There is no mention of insects in the stem, poor drainage, or soil nutritional deficiencies in the scenario provided. The key factor that sets Group 2 apart from the others is the full sunlight exposure, indicating that the species of peas is not suited for such conditions.

4. Which of the following best describes one of the roles of RNA?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. RNA serves as a messenger that carries instructions from DNA for protein synthesis. It does not manufacture proteins directly from DNA (choice A), create bonds within DNA (choice B), or form the double helix structure of DNA (choice D). Therefore, the primary role of RNA is to convey information about the correct sequence of proteins to be synthesized based on the DNA sequences it receives.

5. During which phase of meiosis do chiasmata structures form?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Chiasmata structures, where crossing over occurs, form during Prophase I of meiosis. This phase is characterized by homologous chromosomes pairing up and crossing over, leading to the exchange of genetic material between non-sister chromatids. Chiasmata are visible points of contact where genetic material has been exchanged, and they play a critical role in genetic diversity. Prophase II is the phase where chromosomes condense again in the second meiotic division, but chiasmata formation occurs in Prophase I. Metaphase I is the phase where homologous chromosomes align at the metaphase plate, not where chiasmata form. Metaphase II is the phase where replicated chromosomes align at the metaphase plate in the second meiotic division, but chiasmata formation occurs earlier in Prophase I.

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