HESI A2
Chemistry HESI A2 Practice Test
1. Which of the following factors would not affect rates of reaction?
- A. Temperature
- B. Surface area
- C. Pressure
- D. Time
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Time would not directly affect rates of reaction. The rate of a chemical reaction is determined by factors that affect the frequency of successful collisions between reactant molecules, leading to a reaction. Temperature, surface area, and pressure can influence reaction rates by impacting the kinetic energy of molecules, the exposed surface for collisions, and the concentration of reactants, respectively. However, time, in the context of this question, does not alter the rate of reaction but may affect the extent of the reaction or the amount of product formed over time.
2. How many electron pairs are shared to form a double covalent bond?
- A. 1
- B. 2
- C. 3
- D. 4
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. In a double covalent bond, two pairs of electrons are shared between two atoms. This sharing of two electron pairs results in a stronger bond compared to a single covalent bond where only one pair of electrons is shared. Choice A is incorrect because a single covalent bond involves the sharing of one pair of electrons. Choices C and D are incorrect as they do not represent the correct number of electron pairs shared in a double covalent bond.
3. What does the mass number minus the atomic number equal?
- A. Number of electrons
- B. Number of neutrons
- C. Number of protons
- D. Number of isotopes
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The mass number of an atom represents the total number of protons and neutrons in its nucleus. The atomic number indicates the number of protons in the nucleus. The difference between the mass number and the atomic number provides the number of neutrons present in the nucleus of an atom. Therefore, mass number minus atomic number equals the number of neutrons. Choice A is incorrect because the number of electrons is not determined by the mass number and atomic number. Choice C is incorrect as it represents the number of protons, not the difference between the mass number and atomic number. Choice D is incorrect as isotopes refer to atoms of the same element with different numbers of neutrons, not the difference between mass number and atomic number.
4. What charge do Group VIIA elements have?
- A. -1
- B. -2
- C. 0
- D. 1
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Group VIIA elements, also known as halogens, have a tendency to gain one electron to achieve a stable electron configuration, resulting in a -1 charge. This is because they have seven valence electrons and need one more to complete their octet, making them highly reactive in forming -1 ions. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Choice B (-2) is incorrect because Group VIIA elements typically gain one electron, not two. Choice C (0) is incorrect as these elements tend to form -1 ions by gaining one electron. Choice D (1) is incorrect because Group VIIA elements gain electrons to form negative ions, not positive ones.
5. What is the correct electron configuration for carbon?
- A. 1s²2s²2p¹
- B. 1s²2s²2p²
- C. 1s²2s²2p³
- D. 1s²2s²2p⁶3s¹
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct electron configuration for carbon is 1s²2s²2p². This configuration indicates that there are 2 electrons in the first energy level (1s²), 2 electrons in the second energy level (2s²), and 2 electrons in the second energy level (2p²). It adheres to the aufbau principle, which states that electrons fill orbitals starting from the lowest energy level, and the Pauli exclusion principle, which states that each electron in an atom must have a unique set of quantum numbers. Choice A is incorrect because it does not fill the 2p orbital correctly. Choice C is incorrect as it exceeds the number of possible electrons in the 2p orbital. Choice D is incorrect as it includes an electron in the 3s orbital, which is not part of the electron configuration for carbon.
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