Nursing Elites

1. What type of inheritance pattern results in a 3:1 ratio of dominant to recessive phenotypes in the F2 generation?

• A. Incomplete dominance
• B. Codominance
• C. Sex-linked inheritance
• D. Autosomal dominant inheritance

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Autosomal dominant inheritance results in a 3:1 ratio of dominant to recessive phenotypes in the F2 generation. This inheritance pattern occurs when a single copy of the dominant allele is enough to express the dominant phenotype. A) Incomplete dominance: In incomplete dominance, the heterozygous phenotype is a blend of the two homozygous phenotypes, and it does not lead to a 3:1 ratio of dominant to recessive phenotypes in the F2 generation. B) Codominance: In codominance, both alleles are fully expressed in the heterozygous phenotype, but this pattern also does not result in a 3:1 ratio of dominant to recessive phenotypes in the F2 generation. C) Sex-linked inheritance: Sex-linked inheritance involves genes located on the sex chromosomes and does not typically lead to a 3:1 ratio of dominant to recessive phenotypes in the F2 generation.

2. When a certain plant is introduced into an area, and the population of a certain insect species declines, what can be concluded from this?

• A. The plant is toxic to the insect in question.
• B. The plant competes with and drives out plants that the insect feeds on.
• C. The insect population was declining anyway; the fact that it happened when the plant was introduced is a coincidence.
• D. All of these explanations may be possible; further investigation is necessary to determine which is true.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The given scenario presents multiple possible explanations for the decline in the insect population with the introduction of a particular plant. It could be due to the plant being toxic to the insect (Option A), competing with and driving out plants that the insect feeds on (Option B), or the decline could be coincidental with the plant introduction as the insect population was already decreasing (Option C). Without further investigation and evidence, it is not possible to definitively determine which explanation is correct. Therefore, all of these possibilities may be true, and thorough investigation is necessary to reach a conclusive conclusion.

3. How do spindle fiber dynamics and microtubule attachment regulate cell cycle checkpoints?

• A. Misaligned chromosomes fail to attach to microtubules, triggering a delay in anaphase onset.
• B. The presence of unattached kinetochores on the centromeres sends a signal to pause cell cycle progression.
• C. Microtubule instability and rapid depolymerization lead to the activation of checkpoint proteins.
• D. All of the above.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A) Misaligned chromosomes fail to attach to microtubules, triggering a delay in anaphase onset: Proper attachment of chromosomes to spindle fibers is essential for accurate segregation of genetic material during cell division. Misaligned chromosomes that fail to attach to microtubules can lead to delays in anaphase onset, allowing the cell to correct errors before proceeding with division. B) The presence of unattached kinetochores on the centromeres sends a signal to pause cell cycle progression: Kinetochores at the centromeres help attach chromosomes to spindle fibers. When kinetochores are unattached or improperly attached to microtubules, they signal the cell to pause cell cycle progression, ensuring proper chromosome alignment before division. C) Microtubule instability and rapid depolymerization lead to the activation of checkpoint proteins: While microtubule dynamics are crucial for cell division, microtubule instability and rapid depolymerization can disrupt chromosome attachment. However, this mechanism is not directly related to the activation of cell cycle checkpoint proteins, making this statement incorrect. Therefore, choices A and B accurately describe how spindle fiber dynamics and microtubule attachment regulate cell cycle checkpoints, making option D the correct answer.

4. How many molecules of NADPH and ATP are required to reduce 6 molecules of CO2 to glucose via photosynthesis?

• A. 6 NADPH and 9 ATP
• B. 12 NADPH and 18 ATP
• C. 18 NADPH and 24 ATP
• D. 24 NADPH and 36 ATP

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During photosynthesis, 12 molecules of NADPH and 18 molecules of ATP are required to reduce 6 molecules of CO2 to glucose. NADPH and ATP are essential energy carriers in the process of photosynthesis. Choice A is incorrect because it underestimates the required molecules of both NADPH and ATP. Choices C and D overestimate the number of molecules needed, making them incorrect answers.

5. In the cardiovascular system, what does the term 'double circulation' refer to?

• A. The separation of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood flow within the heart.
• B. The regulation of blood pressure through vasoconstriction and vasodilation.
• C. The cyclic contraction and relaxation of the heart muscle.
• D. The existence of two separate circulatory pathways, one for the lungs and one for the body.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The term 'double circulation' in the cardiovascular system refers to the existence of two separate circulatory pathways, one for the lungs (pulmonary circulation) and one for the body (systemic circulation). Oxygen-poor blood is pumped from the heart to the lungs for oxygenation, and then oxygen-rich blood is pumped from the lungs back to the heart to be circulated to the rest of the body. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not accurately describe the concept of 'double circulation.' Choice A refers to the separation of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood within the heart, choice B relates to blood pressure regulation mechanisms, and choice C describes the cardiac muscle's contraction and relaxation, none of which define 'double circulation' in the context of the cardiovascular system.

Similar Questions