Nursing Elites

1. What is the ultimate end product of glucose breakdown in glycolysis?

• A. ATP
• B. NADPH
• C. Pyruvic acid
• D. Oxygen

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The ultimate end product of glucose breakdown in glycolysis is pyruvic acid. During glycolysis, glucose is broken down into pyruvic acid through a series of enzymatic reactions. ATP is produced as an energy carrier during glycolysis, but it is not the final end product. NADPH is not a direct product of glycolysis; it is mainly produced in the pentose phosphate pathway. Oxygen is not a product of glycolysis but is used as an electron acceptor in the electron transport chain of cellular respiration.

2. Which condition can lead to blood clots and stroke?

• A. Aneurysm
• B. Arrhythmia
• C. Asthma
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Hypertension is the correct answer. Hypertension can cause damage to blood vessels, increasing the risk of blood clots forming, which can potentially lead to a stroke. Aneurysm is a localized, abnormal dilation of a blood vessel that can lead to complications but does not directly cause blood clots and strokes. Arrhythmia refers to irregular heart rhythms and is not directly linked to the formation of blood clots. Asthma is a chronic respiratory condition and does not typically lead to blood clots and strokes.

3. How are genetic markers utilized in paternity testing?

• A. They identify unique sequences in the father's DNA present in the child.
• B. They analyze the presence or absence of specific alleles for certain genes.
• C. They compare the child's blood type to the parents' blood types.
• D. They measure the child's physical resemblance to the father.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Genetic markers are specific DNA sequences that can vary among individuals. In paternity testing, genetic markers are used to compare the DNA of the child with that of the alleged father. By analyzing the presence or absence of specific alleles (different forms of a gene) at these genetic markers, scientists can determine the likelihood of paternity. This method is more accurate and reliable than comparing blood types (choice C) or physical resemblance (choice D) as genetic markers provide a direct comparison of DNA sequences between individuals. Therefore, option B is the correct choice as it accurately describes the use of genetic markers in paternity testing.

4. Which type of cartilage allows for smooth movement at joints and absorbs shock?

• A. Hyaline cartilage
• B. Fibrocartilage
• C. Elastic cartilage
• D. None of the above

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Fibrocartilage is the correct answer. It is found in areas requiring both support and resilience, such as the intervertebral discs and knee joints. Fibrocartilage contains collagen fibers for strength and proteoglycans for resilience, making it suitable for functions that involve smooth movement at joints and shock absorption. Hyaline cartilage, while providing structural support, is not primarily responsible for smooth movement and shock absorption. Elastic cartilage is more flexible and is found in locations like the ear and epiglottis, but it is not known for its shock-absorbing properties. Choosing 'None of the above' disregards the correct option of fibrocartilage, which is specifically designed for the functions described in the question.

5. Which of the following structures is located in the pelvic cavity?

• A. The kidneys
• B. The colon
• C. The bladder
• D. The rectum

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is the bladder. The bladder is situated in the pelvic cavity, specifically in the lower part of the abdomen. The kidneys are positioned higher up in the abdominal cavity, not in the pelvic region. The colon and rectum are part of the large intestine and are primarily located in the abdominal cavity, not the pelvic cavity. Therefore, the bladder is the only structure listed that is anatomically situated in the pelvic cavity.

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