Nursing Elites

1. What is the term for the particles moving within a substance?

• A. Ions
• B. Atoms
• C. Molecules
• D. Kinetic energy

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The term for the particles moving within a substance is typically 'molecules' or 'atoms,' depending on the state of matter. In this context, 'molecules' represent the particles moving around within a substance, especially in the liquid and gas states, while 'atoms' are the fundamental building blocks of matter. 'Ions' are charged particles that can be present in a substance but are not necessarily the primary particles in motion. 'Kinetic energy' is not a term used to describe the particles themselves but rather the energy associated with their motion.

2. During embryonic development, most vertebrates exhibit structures called pharyngeal pouches. These pouches eventually develop into different structures in various vertebrate groups, such as the human jaw and inner ear. Pharyngeal pouches are an example of:

• A. Analogous structures with different evolutionary origins but similar functions
• B. Homologous structures with a common evolutionary origin but diverse functions
• C. Vestigial structures that no longer serve a vital function in some organisms
• D. Atavisms, the reappearance of a trait absent in recent generations

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pharyngeal pouches in vertebrates are an example of homologous structures because they share a common evolutionary origin. Despite developing into different structures in various vertebrate groups, such as the jaw and inner ear in humans, these structures originated from the same ancestral feature. This concept of homology highlights the evolutionary relationship between different species and how structures can be modified over time to serve different functions while retaining a common origin. Choice A is incorrect because analogous structures have similar functions but different evolutionary origins, which does not apply to pharyngeal pouches. Choice C is incorrect as vestigial structures are remnants of features that were functional in ancestors but have reduced or lost their original function, which is not the case for pharyngeal pouches. Choice D is incorrect because atavisms refer to the reappearance of traits absent in recent generations, which is not the characteristic of pharyngeal pouches.

3. An uncharged atom has an electron configuration of 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² and a mass number of 14. How many protons does it have?

• A. 14
• B. 6
• C. 8
• D. 12

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The number of protons in an atom is determined by the atomic number, which is equal to the number of protons in the nucleus. The electron configuration given corresponds to carbon (C) with 6 protons. The atomic number of an element is the same as the number of protons in its nucleus, so in this case, the atom has 6 protons. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not correspond to the correct number of protons for an atom with the given electron configuration and mass number. Therefore, option B, 6 protons, is the correct answer.

4. What is the primary function of the CRISPR-Cas9 system in gene editing?

• A. To amplify specific DNA sequences.
• B. To cut DNA at specific locations.
• C. To deliver genes into cells.
• D. To sequence entire genomes.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The CRISPR-Cas9 system is a powerful tool used in gene editing to precisely target and cut DNA at specific locations within the genome. This system consists of a guide RNA that directs the Cas9 enzyme to the desired DNA sequence, where it creates a double-strand break. This break can then be repaired by the cell's natural DNA repair mechanisms, allowing for the introduction of specific genetic modifications. Options A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately describe the primary function of the CRISPR-Cas9 system in gene editing. Amplifying DNA sequences, delivering genes into cells, and sequencing entire genomes are not the main functions of the CRISPR-Cas9 system, which is primarily focused on precise DNA cutting for targeted genetic modifications.

5. During which phase of meiosis do chiasmata structures form?

• A. Prophase I
• B. Prophase II
• C. Metaphase I
• D. Metaphase II

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Chiasmata structures, where crossing over occurs, form during Prophase I of meiosis. This phase is characterized by homologous chromosomes pairing up and crossing over, leading to the exchange of genetic material between non-sister chromatids. Chiasmata are visible points of contact where genetic material has been exchanged, and they play a critical role in genetic diversity. Prophase II is the phase where chromosomes condense again in the second meiotic division, but chiasmata formation occurs in Prophase I. Metaphase I is the phase where homologous chromosomes align at the metaphase plate, not where chiasmata form. Metaphase II is the phase where replicated chromosomes align at the metaphase plate in the second meiotic division, but chiasmata formation occurs earlier in Prophase I.

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