Nursing Elites

1. Which radioactive isotope is commonly used in medical imaging techniques such as PET scans?

• A. Uranium-235
• B. Plutonium-239
• C. Potassium-40
• D. Fluorine-18

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Fluorine-18 is the radioactive isotope commonly used in medical imaging techniques such as PET scans. It is frequently used in the form of fluorodeoxyglucose (FDG) to locate areas of heightened metabolic activity in the body, such as in cancer cells. Uranium-235 and Plutonium-239 are not typically employed in medical imaging, and Potassium-40, while a naturally occurring radioactive isotope found in the human body, is not commonly used in medical imaging techniques.

2. Which of the following is directly transcribed from DNA and represents the first step in protein synthesis?

• A. siRNA
• B. rRNA
• C. mRNA
• D. tRNA

Correct answer: C

Rationale: mRNA (messenger RNA) is directly transcribed from DNA in the nucleus during the process of transcription. It serves as a template for protein synthesis during translation in the cytoplasm. mRNA carries genetic information from the DNA to the ribosomes, where it determines the sequence of amino acids in a protein. Thus, mRNA represents the first step in protein synthesis as it carries the code from the DNA to be translated into a protein. Choice A, siRNA (small interfering RNA), is involved in post-transcriptional gene silencing and does not play a role in protein synthesis. Choice B, rRNA (ribosomal RNA), is a component of the ribosome and plays a structural and functional role in protein synthesis but is not directly transcribed from DNA. Choice D, tRNA (transfer RNA), is responsible for bringing amino acids to the ribosome during protein synthesis but is not directly transcribed from DNA.

3. What is the process of converting lactic acid back into pyruvate called?

• A. Glycolysis
• B. Gluconeogenesis
• C. Cori cycle
• D. Oxidative phosphorylation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A) Glycolysis is the process of breaking down glucose into pyruvate. B) Gluconeogenesis is the process of synthesizing glucose from non-carbohydrate sources. C) The Cori cycle is the process by which lactic acid produced by anaerobic metabolism in muscles is transported to the liver and converted back into glucose or pyruvate. D) Oxidative phosphorylation is the process by which ATP is synthesized using energy derived from the transfer of electrons in the electron transport chain.

4. During which of the following stages does crossing over occur?

• A. Mitosis Prophase
• B. Meiosis Prophase I
• C. Meiosis Prophase II
• D. Interphase

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Crossing over occurs during Prophase I of meiosis. This stage is specifically associated with genetic recombination, where homologous chromosomes exchange genetic material. This process contributes to genetic diversity by creating new combinations of alleles. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. In mitosis, crossing over does not occur as it involves the separation of replicated chromosomes. Meiosis Prophase II is focused on the reformation of nuclei and does not involve crossing over. Interphase is a stage where the cell prepares for division and is not associated with crossing over.

5. The neutral theory of molecular evolution proposes that:

• A. Most mutations in DNA are selectively neutral and do not affect an organism's fitness.
• B. All mutations are beneficial and contribute to the adaptation of a population.
• C. The rate of evolution is primarily driven by strong directional selection pressures.
• D. Genetic drift plays a negligible role in shaping genetic variation within populations.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: A) The neutral theory of molecular evolution, proposed by Motoo Kimura in the 1960s, suggests that the majority of mutations that occur in DNA are selectively neutral, meaning they do not have a significant impact on an organism's fitness. These neutral mutations are not subject to natural selection and are allowed to accumulate in populations over time. This theory helps explain the high levels of genetic variation observed within populations. B) Option B is incorrect because not all mutations are beneficial. Mutations can be neutral, harmful, or beneficial, and the neutral theory specifically focuses on the idea that many mutations are neutral in their effects. C) Option C is incorrect because the neutral theory suggests that evolution is not primarily driven by strong directional selection pressures. Instead, it emphasizes the role of genetic drift and the accumulation of neutral mutations in shaping genetic variation. D) Option D is incorrect because

Similar Questions