Nursing Elites

1. A 110-volt hair dryer delivers 1,525 watts of power. How many amperes does it draw?

• A. 167.75 amperes
• B. 1.635 amperes
• C. 1.415 amperes
• D. 13.9 amperes

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To determine the amperes drawn by the hair dryer, we use the formula: Amperes = Watts / Volts. The hair dryer operates at 1,525 watts with 110 volts. Dividing 1,525 watts by 110 volts yields 13.9 amperes. Therefore, the correct answer is 13.9 amperes. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not result from the correct calculation using the formula.

2. For the core of an electromagnet, a material with high:

• A. Resistivity is ideal
• B. Permeability is preferred
• C. Permittivity is crucial
• D. Dielectric strength is essential

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A material with high permeability is preferred for the core of an electromagnet because it allows magnetic field lines to pass through it easily, enhancing the strength of the magnetic field generated. Choice A is incorrect because high resistivity would impede the flow of current in the coil, reducing the strength of the magnetic field. Choice C is incorrect as permittivity is related to electric fields, not magnetic fields. Choice D is also incorrect because dielectric strength is about insulating materials against breakdown under an electric field, not relevant to enhancing magnetic fields.

3. The Reynolds number (Re) is a dimensionless quantity used to characterize:

• A. Fluid density
• B. Flow regime (laminar vs. turbulent)
• C. Surface tension effects
• D. Buoyancy force magnitude

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Reynolds number is a dimensionless quantity used to characterize the flow regime, specifically whether it is laminar (smooth) or turbulent (chaotic). It depends on the velocity of the fluid, its characteristic length (such as pipe diameter), and its viscosity. A low Reynolds number indicates laminar flow, while a high Reynolds number suggests turbulence. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the Reynolds number is not related to fluid density, surface tension effects, or buoyancy force magnitude.

4. A spring has a spring constant of 20 N/m. How much force is needed to compress the spring from 40 cm to 30 cm?

• A. 200 N
• B. 80 N
• C. 5 N
• D. 2 N

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The change in length of the spring is 40 cm - 30 cm = 10 cm = 0.10 m. The force required to compress or stretch a spring is given by Hooke's Law: F = k × x, where F is the force, k is the spring constant (20 N/m in this case), and x is the change in length (0.10 m). Substituting the values into the formula: F = 20 N/m × 0.10 m = 2 N. Therefore, the correct answer is 2 N. Choice A (200 N) is incorrect because it miscalculates the force. Choice B (80 N) is incorrect as it does not apply Hooke's Law correctly. Choice C (5 N) is incorrect as it underestimates the force required.

5. In an adiabatic process, there is:

• A. No heat transfer (Q = 0) between the system and the surroundings.
• B. Isothermal compression or expansion (constant temperature).
• C. Constant pressure throughout the process (isobaric process).
• D. No change in the system's internal energy (energy is conserved according to the first law).

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In an adiabatic process, choice A is correct because adiabatic processes involve no heat transfer between the system and its surroundings (Q = 0). This lack of heat transfer is a defining characteristic of adiabatic processes. Choices B, C, and D do not accurately describe an adiabatic process. Choice B refers to an isothermal process where temperature remains constant, not adiabatic. Choice C describes an isobaric process with constant pressure, not specific to adiabatic processes. Choice D mentions the conservation of energy but does not directly relate to the absence of heat transfer in adiabatic processes.

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