Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following statements is true regarding a supersaturated solution?

• A. It is unstable and tends to crystallize
• B. It contains more solute than it could dissolve
• C. It has a higher concentration than a saturated solution
• D. It is rarely encountered in everyday solutions

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A supersaturated solution is unstable and tends to crystallize because it contains more solute than it could dissolve at a given temperature. This excess solute is in a metastable state and can precipitate out if disturbed, leading to the formation of crystals. Option B is incorrect because a supersaturated solution does contain more solute than it could normally dissolve, but it becomes unstable due to this excess solute. Option C is incorrect because while a supersaturated solution does have a higher concentration than a saturated solution, the defining characteristic related to its instability is the excess solute. Option D is incorrect as supersaturated solutions can be encountered in various everyday scenarios, such as certain sugar solutions used in cooking or rock candy production.

2. In order to verify if a particular drug is responsible for the recovery of individuals with a disorder, what procedure would be most effective in testing its effectiveness?

• A. Ensure that neither the subjects nor the investigators know which subjects are given the drug and which are given the placebo.
• B. Ensure that the subjects do not know whether they are given the drug or the placebo, but the investigators are aware of who has received the medication.
• C. Ensure that the investigators do not know whether they are administering the drug or the placebo, but the subjects do know which they are receiving.
• D. Ensure that both the investigators and the subjects have full knowledge of which subjects are getting the drug and which are getting a placebo.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most effective procedure in testing whether the drug is responsible for the recovery is to ensure that neither the subjects nor the investigators know which subjects are given the drug and which are given the placebo. This method is known as a double-blind study, which helps eliminate biases and ensures that the results are reliable and not influenced by expectations or beliefs. By keeping both the subjects and investigators unaware of who is receiving the drug or placebo, the study can accurately determine the true impact of the drug on recovery. Choice B is incorrect as it only prevents the subjects from knowing which treatment they are receiving, allowing for potential bias from the investigators. Choice C is also incorrect as it allows for potential bias from the subjects. Choice D is incorrect as full knowledge of treatment allocation can introduce bias and affect the study's validity.

3. A person wakes up with a fever. The body begins its response to locate the origin of the problem and fix it. What type of feedback mechanism is this?

• A. Equal
• B. Negative
• C. Neutral
• D. Positive

Correct answer: B

Rationale: This scenario describes a negative feedback mechanism. When the body detects a fever, it initiates responses to lower the temperature back to normal levels. Negative feedback mechanisms work to counteract changes and maintain homeostasis in the body. Choice A ('Equal') is incorrect as feedback mechanisms aim to restore balance, not maintain an equal state. Choice C ('Neutral') is incorrect as it does not describe the corrective nature of negative feedback. Choice D ('Positive') is incorrect as it would amplify the fever rather than regulate it.

4. Which of the following terms describes stem cells that have the ability to develop into any cell found in the human body?

• A. Totipotent stem cells
• B. Multipotent stem cells
• C. Pluripotent stem cells
• D. Hematopoietic stem cells

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Totipotent stem cells have the unique ability to differentiate into any cell type in the human body and can generate a complete organism. They are considered the most versatile type of stem cells, capable of developing into all cell types, including extraembryonic tissues. Choice A, Totipotent stem cells, is the correct answer as it specifically describes stem cells with the broadest differentiation potential. Choice B, Multipotent stem cells, refers to stem cells that can differentiate into a limited range of cell types. Choice C, Pluripotent stem cells, can give rise to almost all cell types, but not the complete organism like totipotent stem cells. Choice D, Hematopoietic stem cells, are a type of multipotent stem cells that give rise to various blood cell types, but do not have the same broad differentiation potential as totipotent stem cells.

5. What is the fundamental unit of the nervous system?

• A. Neuron
• B. Nerve
• C. Ganglion
• D. Neuroglia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Neuron. Neurons are the fundamental building blocks of the nervous system. These specialized cells play a crucial role in transmitting information through electrical and chemical signals. While nerves are comprised of bundles of neurons and ganglia consist of clusters of nerve cell bodies located outside the central nervous system, neuroglia serve as support cells for neurons. Neurons are specifically responsible for processing and transmitting information within the nervous system, making them the essential unit of this complex system. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as nerves are bundles of neurons, ganglia are clusters of nerve cell bodies outside the central nervous system, and neuroglia are support cells for neurons, not the fundamental units responsible for information processing and transmission.

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