Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is the MOST common symptom of angina pectoris, a condition related to insufficient blood flow to the heart?

• A. Fever and chills.
• B. Chest pain or discomfort.
• C. Sudden onset of severe shortness of breath.
• D. Numbness or tingling in the extremities.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Chest pain or discomfort is the most common symptom of angina pectoris. This pain is often described as squeezing, pressure, heaviness, tightness, or pain in the chest. Fever and chills, sudden onset of severe shortness of breath, and numbness or tingling in the extremities are not typical symptoms of angina pectoris. The pain associated with angina is usually triggered by physical or emotional stress and typically subsides with rest or medication, distinguishing it from other conditions.

2. What ethical considerations are associated with the potential use of CRISPR-Cas9 technology in humans?

• A. Concerns about unintended consequences on the genome and potential off-target effects.
• B. Debates on modifying the human germline and potential eugenic implications.
• C. Accessibility and affordability of the technology, ensuring equitable access to benefits.
• D. Risks associated with CRISPR-Cas9 editing germline cells and potential long-term impacts.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. CRISPR-Cas9 technology allows precise editing of germline cells, raising ethical concerns about modifying the human gene pool. This includes potential eugenic implications, debates on altering future generations, and the moral implications of such genetic modifications. Choice A discusses unintended consequences and off-target effects, but the primary ethical consideration with CRISPR-Cas9 technology relates to altering the human germline. Choices C and D, while important factors, are not the central ethical dilemmas associated with using CRISPR-Cas9 technology in humans.

3. In order to verify if a particular drug is responsible for the recovery of individuals with a disorder, what procedure would be most effective in testing its effectiveness?

• A. Ensure that neither the subjects nor the investigators know which subjects are given the drug and which are given the placebo.
• B. Ensure that the subjects do not know whether they are given the drug or the placebo, but the investigators are aware of who has received the medication.
• C. Ensure that the investigators do not know whether they are administering the drug or the placebo, but the subjects do know which they are receiving.
• D. Ensure that both the investigators and the subjects have full knowledge of which subjects are getting the drug and which are getting a placebo.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most effective procedure in testing whether the drug is responsible for the recovery is to ensure that neither the subjects nor the investigators know which subjects are given the drug and which are given the placebo. This method is known as a double-blind study, which helps eliminate biases and ensures that the results are reliable and not influenced by expectations or beliefs. By keeping both the subjects and investigators unaware of who is receiving the drug or placebo, the study can accurately determine the true impact of the drug on recovery. Choice B is incorrect as it only prevents the subjects from knowing which treatment they are receiving, allowing for potential bias from the investigators. Choice C is also incorrect as it allows for potential bias from the subjects. Choice D is incorrect as full knowledge of treatment allocation can introduce bias and affect the study's validity.

4. What is the Aufbau principle?

• A. The principle that electrons fill orbitals in order of increasing energy.
• B. The principle that electrons cannot occupy the same orbital with the same spin.
• C. The principle that the maximum number of electrons in an orbital is 2n^2, where n is the energy level of the orbital.
• D. The principle that the attractive force between an electron and the nucleus is inversely proportional to the distance between them.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The Aufbau principle states that electrons fill orbitals in order of increasing energy. This principle helps to explain the electron configuration of atoms and how electrons are distributed within the energy levels and sublevels of an atom. By following the Aufbau principle, one can determine the electron configuration of an atom by sequentially adding electrons to orbitals in order of their increasing energy levels, starting with the lowest energy level. Choice B is incorrect as it describes the Pauli Exclusion Principle, which states that no two electrons in an atom can have the same four quantum numbers. Choice C is incorrect as it refers to the formula for calculating the maximum number of electrons that can occupy an energy level. Choice D is incorrect as it relates to Coulomb's law, which describes the electrostatic interaction between charged particles.

5. Which of the following is the cartilaginous flap that protects the larynx from water or food while still allowing the flow of air?

• A. epiglottis
• B. bronchioles
• C. epithelium
• D. tongue

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The epiglottis is the cartilaginous flap that protects the larynx from water or food while still allowing the flow of air. When we swallow, the epiglottis covers the entrance to the larynx, preventing food or liquid from entering the airway and instead directing them towards the esophagus for digestion. Choice B, bronchioles, are small airway branches within the lungs and are not involved in protecting the larynx from food or water. Choice C, epithelium, refers to the tissue that lines the surfaces of organs and structures in the body, but it is not the specific structure that protects the larynx as described. Choice D, tongue, plays a role in taste, speech, and swallowing, but it is not the cartilaginous flap that protects the larynx.

Similar Questions