ATI TEAS 7
ATI TEAS Science Practice Test
1. Which of the following is directly transcribed from DNA and represents the first step in protein synthesis?
- A. siRNA
- B. rRNA
- C. mRNA
- D. tRNA
Correct answer: C
Rationale: mRNA (messenger RNA) is directly transcribed from DNA in the nucleus during the process of transcription. It serves as a template for protein synthesis during translation in the cytoplasm. mRNA carries genetic information from the DNA to the ribosomes, where it determines the sequence of amino acids in a protein. Thus, mRNA represents the first step in protein synthesis as it carries the code from the DNA to be translated into a protein. Choice A, siRNA (small interfering RNA), is involved in post-transcriptional gene silencing and does not play a role in protein synthesis. Choice B, rRNA (ribosomal RNA), is a component of the ribosome and plays a structural and functional role in protein synthesis but is not directly transcribed from DNA. Choice D, tRNA (transfer RNA), is responsible for bringing amino acids to the ribosome during protein synthesis but is not directly transcribed from DNA.
2. What term describes the maximum displacement of particles from their rest position in a wave?
- A. Frequency
- B. Wavelength
- C. Amplitude
- D. Velocity
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The term that describes the maximum displacement of particles from their rest position in a wave is called the amplitude. Amplitude is a measure of the strength or intensity of a wave and is represented by the height of the wave from the rest position to the crest (or trough) of the wave. Frequency (A) refers to the number of complete wavelengths that pass a point in a given time. Wavelength (B) is the distance between two consecutive crests (or troughs) of a wave. Velocity (D) is the speed of the wave, not the maximum displacement of particles from their rest position.
3. Scientists compare the DNA of different organisms to understand evolutionary relationships. What is this type of evidence called?
- A. Morphological evidence (comparing body structures)
- B. Biochemical evidence (comparing molecules like proteins)
- C. Geographic distribution evidence (where organisms live)
- D. Genetic evidence (comparing DNA sequences)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A) Morphological evidence involves comparing body structures of organisms, which can provide information about evolutionary relationships based on physical similarities and differences. However, DNA comparison is a more direct and accurate method for understanding evolutionary relationships. B) Biochemical evidence involves comparing molecules like proteins, which can also provide insights into evolutionary relationships. However, DNA comparison is considered more reliable due to the direct relationship between DNA sequences and genetic information. C) Geographic distribution evidence refers to where organisms live and how their distribution may provide clues about evolutionary history. While this can be informative, it is not as direct or specific as comparing DNA sequences. D) Genetic evidence involves comparing DNA sequences of different organisms to understand their evolutionary relationships. DNA comparison is a powerful tool in evolutionary biology because it provides direct information about genetic similarities and differences, offering precise insights into evolutionary relationships.
4. What is the significance of a healthy gut microbiome?
- A. Production of digestive enzymes
- B. Boosting the immune system and nutrient synthesis
- C. Breakdown of complex carbohydrates
- D. Regulation of appetite
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A healthy gut microbiome plays a crucial role in boosting the immune system by defending against harmful pathogens, synthesizing essential nutrients like vitamins, aiding in the digestion of certain foods, and maintaining overall gut health. While the gut microbiome does contribute to the breakdown of complex carbohydrates and regulation of appetite, its significance extends beyond these functions to include immune support and nutrient synthesis. Choice A, production of digestive enzymes, is not the primary significance of a healthy gut microbiome. Choice C is a function related to the gut microbiome but is not the sole significance. Choice D, regulation of appetite, is important but not as central as the immune system support and nutrient synthesis provided by a healthy gut microbiome.
5. Why are negative feedback mechanisms crucial in the endocrine system?
- A. To increase hormone production continuously
- B. To maintain hormone levels within a specific range
- C. To cause a constant release of hormones
- D. To disrupt communication between glands
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Negative feedback mechanisms in the endocrine system play a vital role in maintaining hormone levels within a specific range. When hormone levels deviate from the set point, negative feedback signals prompt adjustments in hormone production to bring the levels back to the optimal range. This process ensures a delicate balance of hormones in the body, preventing excesses or deficiencies. Choice A is incorrect because continuously increasing hormone production would lead to imbalances. Choice C is incorrect as a constant release of hormones without regulation would disrupt homeostasis. Choice D is incorrect because disrupting communication between glands would hinder proper coordination and regulation of hormone levels, which is essential for the body's overall function.
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