Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following correctly identifies a difference between the primary and secondary immune response?

• A. In the secondary response, macrophages migrate to the lymph nodes to present the foreign microorganism to helper T lymphocytes.
• B. The humoral immunity that characterizes the primary response is coordinated by B lymphocytes.
• C. The primary response is quicker and more powerful than the secondary response.
• D. Suppressor T cells are activated in the secondary response to prevent an overactive immune response.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The primary immune response is slower and less powerful compared to the secondary immune response. During the primary response, immune cells encounter the antigen for the first time, necessitating the activation and proliferation of specific immune cells. In contrast, the secondary response benefits from memory cells that quickly recognize the antigen, enabling a faster and more potent immune response. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. While macrophages play a role in presenting antigens to T cells, this is not a defining difference between primary and secondary responses. Humoral immunity involves B lymphocytes in both primary and secondary responses, so it does not differentiate the two. Suppressor T cells primarily function to regulate the immune response but are not a key factor distinguishing primary from secondary responses.

2. Why do emerging infectious diseases (EIDs) pose a significant public health threat?

• A. Because they are well-understood by medical professionals
• B. Because they are easily treatable with existing antibiotics
• C. Because they are new, rapidly evolving, and can spread quickly
• D. Because they primarily affect animals and not humans

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Emerging infectious diseases (EIDs) are a significant public health threat because they are characterized by being new or newly identified diseases that are rapidly evolving. These diseases can spread quickly within populations due to factors such as globalization, travel, urbanization, and changes in climate. EIDs often present challenges to medical professionals as they may not be well-understood initially, making it difficult to develop effective treatments or preventive measures. While some EIDs can be treatable with existing antibiotics, the rapid evolution of these diseases can lead to the development of drug resistance, further complicating treatment efforts. Additionally, EIDs are not limited to affecting animals; they can also have serious implications for human health and well-being. Therefore, the correct answer is that EIDs pose a threat because they are new, rapidly evolving, and can spread quickly. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because EIDs are not well-understood initially, may develop drug resistance, and can affect humans significantly, not just animals.

3. What is the stage of mitosis during which the nuclear envelope reforms?

• A. Prophase
• B. Metaphase
• C. Telophase
• D. Cytokinesis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During telophase, the nuclear envelope reforms around the separated sister chromatids at opposite poles of the cell. This stage marks the reversal of the processes that occurred during prophase, where the nuclear envelope breaks down. Metaphase is characterized by the alignment of chromosomes along the metaphase plate in the cell's center. Cytokinesis is the final step of cell division involving cytoplasmic division to form two daughter cells, but it does not involve the reformation of the nuclear envelope. Therefore, choice C (Telophase) is the correct answer as it specifically involves the reformation of the nuclear envelope, distinguishing it from the other stages of mitosis.

4. Which types of glial cells are in the PNS?

• A. Schwann cells, satellite cells
• B. Astrocytes, oligodendrocytes
• C. Microglia, ependymal cells
• D. Satellite cells, oligodendrocytes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, which includes Schwann cells and satellite cells as the types of glial cells found in the peripheral nervous system. Schwann cells support neurons and myelinate axons, while satellite cells provide structural support and regulate the microenvironment around neurons in the PNS. Options B, C, and D are incorrect as they refer to glial cell types that are typically found in the central nervous system, not the peripheral nervous system. Astrocytes and oligodendrocytes are primarily located in the CNS, where they perform functions such as providing structural support and forming the blood-brain barrier. Microglia are immune cells found in the CNS responsible for immune defense and maintenance of neural environment, while ependymal cells line the cerebral ventricles and the central canal of the spinal cord, contributing to the production and circulation of cerebrospinal fluid.

5. Which hormone is produced by the pancreas to lower blood sugar levels?

• A. Glucagon
• B. Insulin
• C. Adrenaline
• D. Melatonin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Insulin. Insulin is produced by the pancreas and plays a crucial role in lowering blood sugar levels by promoting the uptake of glucose into cells for energy production or storage. Glucagon, which is also produced by the pancreas, functions to increase blood sugar levels by stimulating the release of stored glucose. Adrenaline, produced by the adrenal glands, is involved in the fight-or-flight response and does not directly regulate blood sugar levels. Melatonin, produced by the pineal gland, primarily regulates the sleep-wake cycle and is not involved in blood sugar level control.

Similar Questions