Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following correctly identifies a difference between the primary and secondary immune response?

• A. In the secondary response, macrophages migrate to the lymph nodes to present the foreign microorganism to helper T lymphocytes.
• B. The humoral immunity that characterizes the primary response is coordinated by B lymphocytes.
• C. The primary response is quicker and more powerful than the secondary response.
• D. Suppressor T cells are activated in the secondary response to prevent an overactive immune response.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The primary immune response is slower and less powerful compared to the secondary immune response. During the primary response, immune cells encounter the antigen for the first time, necessitating the activation and proliferation of specific immune cells. In contrast, the secondary response benefits from memory cells that quickly recognize the antigen, enabling a faster and more potent immune response. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. While macrophages play a role in presenting antigens to T cells, this is not a defining difference between primary and secondary responses. Humoral immunity involves B lymphocytes in both primary and secondary responses, so it does not differentiate the two. Suppressor T cells primarily function to regulate the immune response but are not a key factor distinguishing primary from secondary responses.

2. Which organelle is responsible for breaking down macromolecules, such as proteins, carbohydrates, and lipids, into their smaller building blocks?

• A. Golgi apparatus
• B. Mitochondria
• C. Lysosomes
• D. Endoplasmic reticulum

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Lysosomes are membrane-bound organelles containing digestive enzymes that break down macromolecules, such as proteins, carbohydrates, and lipids, into their smaller building blocks. These enzymes help in the process of intracellular digestion and recycling of cellular components. The Golgi apparatus is involved in processing and packaging proteins for secretion or for use within the cell. Mitochondria are responsible for producing energy in the form of ATP through cellular respiration. The endoplasmic reticulum is involved in protein synthesis and lipid metabolism. Therefore, the correct answer is 'C: Lysosomes' as they specifically function in the breakdown of macromolecules into smaller components, distinguishing them from the other organelles mentioned.

3. The van't Hoff factor (i) accounts for the number of particles a solute dissociates into in solution. For a compound that dissociates completely in water, i would be...

• A. 0
• B. Less than 1
• C. 1
• D. More than 1

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The van't Hoff factor (i) represents the number of particles a solute dissociates into in solution. For a compound that dissociates completely in water, i would be more than 1 because it breaks apart into more particles than the original compound. This is due to complete dissociation leading to an increase in the number of particles in solution, resulting in i being greater than 1. Choice A is incorrect as a compound that dissociates completely will not have an i value of 0. Choice B is incorrect because when a compound dissociates completely, the van't Hoff factor is not less than 1. Choice C is incorrect as a compound that dissociates completely will not have an i value of 1, but rather more than 1 due to the increased number of particles in solution.

4. The Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium describes a population that is:

• A. Undergoing rapid evolution due to strong directional selection.
• B. Not evolving and at genetic equilibrium with stable allele frequencies.
• C. Experiencing a founder effect leading to a reduction in genetic diversity.
• D. Dominated by a single homozygous genotype that eliminates all variation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium describes a theoretical population in which allele frequencies remain constant from generation to generation, indicating that the population is not evolving. This equilibrium occurs under specific conditions: no mutation, no gene flow, random mating, a large population size, and no natural selection. In this scenario, all genotypes are in proportion to the allele frequencies, and genetic diversity is maintained. Options A, C, and D do not accurately describe a population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. Option A suggests rapid evolution due to strong directional selection, which would disrupt the equilibrium. Option C mentions a founder effect, which can reduce genetic diversity but is not a characteristic of a population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. Option D describes a population dominated by a single homozygous genotype, which also does not align with the genetic diversity seen in a population at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.

5. Where is the cervix located?

• A. Top of the uterus
• B. Top of the ovaries
• C. Bottom of the vagina
• D. Bottom of the uterus

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The cervix is located at the bottom of the uterus, where it opens into the vagina. It serves as the passageway between the uterus and the vagina, playing a crucial role in childbirth and menstrual flow. Choice A ('Top of the uterus') is incorrect because the cervix is not located at the top of the uterus. Choice B ('Top of the ovaries') is incorrect as the cervix is not located near the ovaries. Choice C ('Bottom of the vagina') is incorrect as the cervix is not located at the bottom of the vagina, but rather at the bottom of the uterus.

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