Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following structures can serve as a passageway for both food and air?

• A. Esophagus
• B. Laryngopharynx
• C. Nasopharynx
• D. Trachea

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is the Laryngopharynx. It is a common passageway for both food and air. The Esophagus (Choice A) is solely for transporting food from the throat to the stomach. The Nasopharynx (Choice C) is primarily involved in the passage of air. The Trachea (Choice D) is responsible for conducting air to and from the lungs and does not play a role in the passage of food.

2. During which phase of the cardiac cycle do the atria contract, pushing blood into the ventricles?

• A. Atrial diastole
• B. Ventricular systole
• C. Atrial systole
• D. Ventricular diastole

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Atrial systole is the phase of the cardiac cycle during which the atria contract, pushing blood into the ventricles. This occurs after the atria have been filled during atrial diastole. Ventricular systole refers to the phase when the ventricles contract to push blood out of the heart, not when the atria contract. Ventricular diastole is the phase when the ventricles relax and fill with blood, not when the atria contract. Therefore, the correct answer is atrial systole as it specifically describes the atrial contraction phase.

3. What describes a cell’s reaction to being placed in a hypertonic solution?

• A. The cell will shrink as water is pulled out of the cell to equalize the concentrations inside and outside of the cell.
• B. The cell will swell as water is pulled into the cell to equalize the concentrations inside and outside of the cell.
• C. The cell will remain the same size since the concentrations inside and outside the cell are equal to begin with.
• D. The pH inside the cell will drop in order to equalize the pH inside and outside the cell.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A cell placed in a hypertonic solution has a higher solute concentration outside the cell compared to inside. This creates a concentration gradient that causes water to move out of the cell through osmosis to equalize the concentrations on both sides. As a result, the cell will shrink or undergo plasmolysis, as water is pulled out of the cell. Choice B is incorrect because a hypertonic solution causes water to move out of the cell, leading to shrinkage rather than swelling. Choice C is incorrect as a hypertonic solution results in a concentration gradient that leads to water leaving the cell, causing it to shrink. Choice D is incorrect because pH is not directly affected by being placed in a hypertonic solution; the change in solute concentration primarily impacts water movement.

4. What is the Pauli exclusion principle?

• A. The principle that electrons fill orbitals in order of increasing energy.
• B. The principle that electrons cannot occupy the same orbital with the same spin.
• C. The principle that the maximum number of electrons in an orbital is 2n^2, where n is the energy level of the orbital.
• D. The principle that the attractive force between an electron and the nucleus is inversely proportional to the distance between them.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Pauli exclusion principle states that no two electrons in an atom can have the same set of four quantum numbers. This principle leads to the rule that electrons must have opposite spins when occupying the same orbital. Therefore, electrons cannot occupy the same orbital with the same spin, as stated in option B. Option A is incorrect as it refers to the Aufbau principle, which describes the order in which electrons fill orbitals based on increasing energy. Option C is incorrect as it provides the formula for the maximum number of electrons in an orbital based on the energy level, not the Pauli exclusion principle. Option D is incorrect as it describes Coulomb's law, which deals with the electrostatic force between charged particles, not the Pauli exclusion principle.

5. Which of the following is an example of Mendelian inheritance?

• A. Incomplete Dominance
• B. Polygenic Alleles
• C. Combination Inheritance
• D. Recessive Inheritance

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Recessive Inheritance.' Mendelian inheritance involves traits controlled by single genes with dominant and recessive alleles. Incomplete dominance (choice A) is a non-Mendelian inheritance pattern where the heterozygous phenotype is a blend of the two homozygous phenotypes. Polygenic alleles (choice B) involve multiple genes contributing to a single trait, not following Mendelian principles. Combination inheritance (choice C) is not a recognized term in genetics and does not describe Mendelian inheritance patterns.

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