which is the first event to happen in a primary immune response
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Nursing Elites

ATI TEAS 7

ATI TEAS Science

1. What is the first event to occur in a primary immune response?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. The initial event in a primary immune response is the phagocytosis of pathogens by macrophages and the subsequent presentation of their antigens, which is crucial for initiating the adaptive immune response. Neutrophils (Choice B) are also involved in the innate immune response, but they typically respond after macrophages. B lymphocytes (Choice C) produce antibodies later in the adaptive immune response, and Helper T cells (Choice D) help in coordinating the immune response but are not the first cells to act in a primary immune response.

2. Which of the following terms means close to the trunk of the body?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The term 'proximal' means situated close to the point of attachment or the center of the body, such as close to the trunk. In anatomical terms, proximal is used to describe locations that are closer to the body's center or point of reference. 'Superficial' refers to something situated near the surface, 'sagittal' refers to a plane that divides the body into left and right portions, and 'distal' refers to a position away from the center or point of reference. Therefore, 'proximal' is the correct term to indicate a position close to the trunk of the body.

3. Which part of the brain controls breathing and heart rate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The medulla oblongata is the correct answer because it is responsible for controlling involuntary functions such as breathing and heart rate. The cerebrum (Choice A) is primarily associated with higher brain functions like thinking and voluntary movements, not with regulating basic bodily functions like breathing and heart rate. The thalamus (Choice C) serves as a relay station for sensory information but is not directly involved in controlling breathing and heart rate. The cerebellum (Choice D) plays a role in coordination and balance, not in regulating respiratory and cardiac functions.

4. In order to verify if a particular drug is responsible for the recovery of individuals with a disorder, what procedure would be most effective in testing its effectiveness?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most effective procedure in testing whether the drug is responsible for the recovery is to ensure that neither the subjects nor the investigators know which subjects are given the drug and which are given the placebo. This method is known as a double-blind study, which helps eliminate biases and ensures that the results are reliable and not influenced by expectations or beliefs. By keeping both the subjects and investigators unaware of who is receiving the drug or placebo, the study can accurately determine the true impact of the drug on recovery. Choice B is incorrect as it only prevents the subjects from knowing which treatment they are receiving, allowing for potential bias from the investigators. Choice C is also incorrect as it allows for potential bias from the subjects. Choice D is incorrect as full knowledge of treatment allocation can introduce bias and affect the study's validity.

5. What determines the defining characteristic of an element?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The defining characteristic of an element is determined by the number of protons in its nucleus, which is referred to as the atomic number. The number of protons uniquely identifies an element. The correct answer is choice C because the number of protons in the nucleus of an atom defines its elemental identity, as different elements have a unique number of protons. Neutrons and electrons do play essential roles in the atom, but they do not determine the defining characteristic of an element. Neutrons contribute to the stability of the nucleus and isotopes of an element, while electrons are involved in chemical bonding and the reactivity of an atom.

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