how many neutrons and electrons could a negative ion of sulfur have

ATI TEAS 7

Practice Science TEAS Test

1. How many neutrons and electrons could a negative ion of sulfur have?

A. 16 neutrons, 16 electrons
B. 16 neutrons, 17 electrons
C. 17 neutrons, 16 electrons
D. 17 neutrons, 17 electrons

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A negative ion of sulfur would have 16 protons and 17 electrons since it gains one electron. The number of neutrons in an ion does not change, so the neutrons would remain at 16. Therefore, the correct answer is 16 neutrons and 17 electrons, which corresponds to choice B. Choice A is incorrect as it does not account for the extra electron gained by the negative ion. Choices C and D are incorrect because they propose a change in the number of neutrons, which is not affected by the ionization process.

2. Which hormone is released by the pituitary gland?

A. Estrogen
B. Luteinizing Hormone
C. Progesterone
D. Testosterone

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Luteinizing Hormone. The pituitary gland releases luteinizing hormone, which plays a crucial role in reproductive functions by stimulating ovulation in females and testosterone production in males. Choice A, Estrogen, is incorrect as estrogen is mainly produced by the ovaries. Choice C, Progesterone, is incorrect as progesterone is produced by the corpus luteum in the ovaries and the placenta during pregnancy. Choice D, Testosterone, is incorrect as testosterone is produced primarily in the testes in males and in smaller amounts in the ovaries and adrenal glands in females.

3. What is the scientific term for a muscle that helps another muscle perform its action?

A. Agonist
B. Antagonist
C. Synergist
D. Fixator

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A synergist is a muscle that assists the agonist, the primary muscle responsible for a specific movement, in performing that movement. Synergists stabilize joints and provide additional support to the prime mover muscle, enhancing the efficiency and effectiveness of the movement. Choice A, Agonist, refers to the muscle primarily responsible for a specific movement. Choice B, Antagonist, refers to a muscle that opposes the action of the agonist. Choice D, Fixator, refers to a muscle that stabilizes the origin of the prime mover muscle, maintaining the desired position during movement.

4. What does the T wave on an ECG correspond to?

A. Atrial depolarization
B. Ventricular depolarization
C. Atrial repolarization
D. Ventricular repolarization

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The T wave on an ECG corresponds to ventricular repolarization. Following ventricular depolarization, which is represented by the QRS complex, the ventricles undergo repolarization during the T wave. This phase signifies the recovery of ventricular muscle cells as they prepare for the subsequent depolarization cycle. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the T wave specifically reflects the repolarization of the ventricles, not the atria or their respective depolarization or repolarization phases.

5. Which enzyme found in saliva is responsible for breaking down carbohydrates into smaller molecules like sugars?

A. Pepsin
B. Amylase
C. Lipase
D. Trypsin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Saliva contains an enzyme called amylase, which specifically targets carbohydrates and breaks them down into smaller molecules like sugars. Pepsin, choice A, is an enzyme found in the stomach that breaks down proteins, not carbohydrates. Lipase, choice C, is responsible for breaking down fats, not carbohydrates. Trypsin, choice D, is an enzyme that breaks down proteins in the small intestine, not carbohydrates. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect for this question.