Nursing Elites

1. What does half-life refer to?

• A. Radioactive intensity to completely disappear
• B. The number of neutrons in a nucleus to double
• C. The number of protons in a nucleus to change
• D. An isotope to decay by half of its initial quantity

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Half-life refers to the time it takes for half of the radioactive atoms in a sample to decay. This means that after one half-life, half of the initial quantity of the radioactive substance will have decayed. Choice A is incorrect because radioactive intensity doesn't completely disappear during half-life. Choice B is incorrect as half-life doesn't refer to the number of neutrons doubling. Choice C is incorrect as half-life doesn't relate to the number of protons changing.

2. Which of the following is a characteristic of alkenes?

• A. They have a double bond between carbon atoms.
• B. They are saturated hydrocarbons.
• C. They contain only single bonds.
• D. They are derivatives of ammonia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Alkenes are hydrocarbons that contain at least one carbon-carbon double bond. This double bond is a key characteristic that distinguishes alkenes from other types of hydrocarbons. Option A correctly identifies this defining feature of alkenes, making it the correct answer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B is incorrect because alkenes are unsaturated hydrocarbons due to the presence of double bonds. Choice C is incorrect as alkenes do not contain only single bonds; they have at least one double bond. Choice D is incorrect because alkenes are not derivatives of ammonia; they are a distinct class of organic compounds with carbon-carbon double bonds.

3. Which of the following is NOT a state of matter?

• A. Solid
• B. Liquid
• C. Gas
• D. Superfluid

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Superfluid.' Superfluid is not considered a traditional state of matter. It is a unique phase of matter that displays zero viscosity and flows without losing kinetic energy. Solids, liquids, and gases are the three classical states of matter distinguished by their physical properties and structures. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are considered states of matter, while choice D, superfluid, is not.

4. What type of inheritance pattern results in a 3:1 ratio of dominant to recessive phenotypes in the F2 generation?

• A. Incomplete dominance
• B. Codominance
• C. Sex-linked inheritance
• D. Autosomal dominant inheritance

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Autosomal dominant inheritance results in a 3:1 ratio of dominant to recessive phenotypes in the F2 generation. This inheritance pattern occurs when a single copy of the dominant allele is enough to express the dominant phenotype. A) Incomplete dominance: In incomplete dominance, the heterozygous phenotype is a blend of the two homozygous phenotypes, and it does not lead to a 3:1 ratio of dominant to recessive phenotypes in the F2 generation. B) Codominance: In codominance, both alleles are fully expressed in the heterozygous phenotype, but this pattern also does not result in a 3:1 ratio of dominant to recessive phenotypes in the F2 generation. C) Sex-linked inheritance: Sex-linked inheritance involves genes located on the sex chromosomes and does not typically lead to a 3:1 ratio of dominant to recessive phenotypes in the F2 generation.

5. When human cells divide by meiosis, how many chromosomes do the resulting cells contain?

• A. 96
• B. 54
• C. 46
• D. 23

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When human cells divide by meiosis, the resulting cells contain 23 chromosomes. This is because meiosis is a cell division process that reduces the chromosome number by half, resulting in cells with a haploid number of chromosomes. In humans, the diploid number of chromosomes is 46. Therefore, after meiosis, the resulting cells have 23 chromosomes, ensuring the correct chromosome number is restored upon fertilization. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not represent the correct chromosome number resulting from meiosis in human cells.

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