Nursing Elites

1. What does bradycardia refer to in terms of heart rate?

• A. Normal (60-100 bpm)
• B. Slightly elevated (100-120 bpm)
• C. Significantly elevated (>120 bpm)
• D. Abnormally slow (<60 bpm)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Bradycardia refers to an abnormally slow heart rate, typically defined as less than 60 beats per minute. This condition can result in inadequate blood flow to meet the body's demands. It is crucial to distinguish between bradycardia and tachycardia, which is a fast heart rate, as they require different management strategies. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because they describe normal, slightly elevated, and significantly elevated heart rates, respectively, rather than an abnormally slow heart rate characteristic of bradycardia. Recognizing bradycardia is essential for appropriate evaluation and intervention in clinical settings.

2. What is the main function of valence electrons in chemical bonding?

• A. They are responsible for holding the nucleus together.
• B. They are involved in forming bonds with other atoms.
• C. They determine the element's physical properties.
• D. They play no role in chemical reactions.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Valence electrons are the electrons in the outermost energy level of an atom. These electrons are involved in forming bonds with other atoms, which is crucial for chemical bonding. By participating in bonding, valence electrons determine an atom's ability to form compounds and engage in chemical reactions. Therefore, the primary function of valence electrons is to facilitate the formation of bonds between atoms, making option B the correct answer. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because valence electrons primarily influence chemical bonding by participating in the formation of bonds between atoms, rather than holding the nucleus together, determining physical properties, or having no role in chemical reactions.

3. When is work done on an object?

• A. Only when the object's velocity changes
• B. Only when a force is applied to the object
• C. Whenever there is a force exerted on the object causing displacement
• D. Only when the object is lifted vertically

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Work is done on an object whenever a force causes displacement in the object's position. According to the work-energy principle, work is calculated as the force applied multiplied by the distance the object moves in the direction of the force. Therefore, work can occur whenever there is a force exerted on the object resulting in displacement, regardless of whether the object's velocity changes or it is lifted vertically. Choice A is incorrect because work can be done even without a change in velocity. Choice B is incorrect as work requires both force and displacement, not just the application of force. Choice D is incorrect because work is not limited to vertical lifting; it can happen in any direction as long as there is a force causing displacement.

4. Two mice are both heterozygous for two traits: white fur (Ww) and short fur (Ss). Their offspring are most likely to have which of the following genotypes for these traits?

• A. wwss
• B. WWSS
• C. WwSs
• D. WWSs

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When two mice that are heterozygous for white fur (Ww) and short fur (Ss) mate, they can produce offspring with different combinations of the two traits. The Punnett square for this cross shows that the most likely genotype for the offspring is WwSs. In this case, each offspring receives one allele for white fur (W) and one for short fur (S) from each parent, resulting in a heterozygous genotype for both traits. Choice A (wwss) is incorrect as it represents a homozygous recessive genotype for both traits. Choice B (WWSS) is also incorrect as it represents a homozygous dominant genotype for both traits. Choice D (WWSs) is incorrect as it represents a genotype where one trait is homozygous dominant (W) and the other is heterozygous (S), which is not the most likely outcome based on the given parental genotypes.

5. What type of genetic testing can reveal an individual's susceptibility to certain diseases?

• A. Karyotyping
• B. Pharmacogenomics
• C. Paternity testing
• D. Microarray analysis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A) Karyotyping is a genetic test that examines an individual's chromosomes to detect abnormalities such as extra or missing chromosomes. It is not typically used to reveal an individual's susceptibility to certain diseases. B) Pharmacogenomics is the study of how genes affect a person's response to drugs. It focuses on how genetic variations can influence drug response, rather than susceptibility to diseases. C) Paternity testing is a genetic test used to determine the biological relationship between a child and an alleged father. It is not used to reveal an individual's susceptibility to diseases. D) Microarray analysis is a type of genetic testing that can reveal an individual's susceptibility to certain diseases by analyzing variations in their DNA. It can identify genetic markers associated with increased risk for specific conditions, allowing for personalized risk assessment and preventive measures.

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