Nursing Elites

1. An uncharged atom has an electron configuration of 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² and a mass number of 14. How many protons does it have?

• A. 14
• B. 6
• C. 8
• D. 12

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The number of protons in an atom is determined by the atomic number, which is equal to the number of protons in the nucleus. The electron configuration given corresponds to carbon (C) with 6 protons. The atomic number of an element is the same as the number of protons in its nucleus, so in this case, the atom has 6 protons. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not correspond to the correct number of protons for an atom with the given electron configuration and mass number. Therefore, option B, 6 protons, is the correct answer.

2. What are the phases of bacterial growth and infection?

• A. Lag, exponential, stationary, death
• B. Exponential, stationary, lag, death
• C. Stationary, exponential, lag, death
• D. Lag, stationary, exponential, death

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Lag, exponential, stationary, death. The phases of bacterial growth start with the lag phase where bacteria acclimate to their environment, followed by the exponential phase characterized by rapid growth. This is then followed by the stationary phase where growth slows as resources deplete, and finally, the death phase where the population declines. Choice B is incorrect as it has the order of phases mixed up. Choice C is incorrect as it also has the order of phases mixed up. Choice D is incorrect as it has the stationary phase occurring before the exponential phase, which is inaccurate.

3. What is the term for a genetic disorder caused by a mutation on the X chromosome?

• A. Autosomal dominant disorder
• B. Autosomal recessive disorder
• C. Sex-linked recessive disorder
• D. Sex-linked dominant disorder

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A genetic disorder caused by a mutation on the X chromosome is termed a sex-linked recessive disorder (Option C). This type of disorder is more commonly seen in males due to their single X chromosome, making them more vulnerable to X-linked mutations. Females have two X chromosomes, providing a protective effect against X-linked disorders.\n- Autosomal dominant disorders (Option A) result from a mutation in one copy of a gene on non-sex chromosomes (autosomes) and are not specifically related to the X chromosome.\n- Autosomal recessive disorders (Option B) occur due to mutations in both copies of a gene on autosomes, not on the X chromosome.\n- Sex-linked dominant disorders (Option D) are rare and lead to more severe symptoms in males as they only require one copy of the mutated gene on the X chromosome to express the disorder. However, this is not the term for a genetic disorder caused by an X chromosome mutation.

4. What is the primary hormone released by the parathyroid glands?

• A. Insulin
• B. Calcitonin
• C. Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
• D. Thyroxine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The primary hormone released by the parathyroid glands is parathyroid hormone (PTH). PTH plays a crucial role in regulating calcium and phosphorus levels in the body by increasing calcium levels in the blood through various mechanisms, such as promoting calcium release from bones and increasing calcium absorption in the intestines. Insulin is produced by the pancreas and regulates blood sugar levels, calcitonin is produced by the thyroid gland and helps lower blood calcium levels, and thyroxine is a hormone produced by the thyroid gland that regulates metabolism. Therefore, choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not the primary hormone released by the parathyroid glands.

5. In order to verify if a particular drug is responsible for the recovery of individuals with a disorder, what procedure would be most effective in testing its effectiveness?

• A. Ensure that neither the subjects nor the investigators know which subjects are given the drug and which are given the placebo.
• B. Ensure that the subjects do not know whether they are given the drug or the placebo, but the investigators are aware of who has received the medication.
• C. Ensure that the investigators do not know whether they are administering the drug or the placebo, but the subjects do know which they are receiving.
• D. Ensure that both the investigators and the subjects have full knowledge of which subjects are getting the drug and which are getting a placebo.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most effective procedure in testing whether the drug is responsible for the recovery is to ensure that neither the subjects nor the investigators know which subjects are given the drug and which are given the placebo. This method is known as a double-blind study, which helps eliminate biases and ensures that the results are reliable and not influenced by expectations or beliefs. By keeping both the subjects and investigators unaware of who is receiving the drug or placebo, the study can accurately determine the true impact of the drug on recovery. Choice B is incorrect as it only prevents the subjects from knowing which treatment they are receiving, allowing for potential bias from the investigators. Choice C is also incorrect as it allows for potential bias from the subjects. Choice D is incorrect as full knowledge of treatment allocation can introduce bias and affect the study's validity.

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