Nursing Elites

1. An uncharged atom has an electron configuration of 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² and a mass number of 14. How many protons does it have?

• A. 14
• B. 6
• C. 8
• D. 12

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The number of protons in an atom is determined by the atomic number, which is equal to the number of protons in the nucleus. The electron configuration given corresponds to carbon (C) with 6 protons. The atomic number of an element is the same as the number of protons in its nucleus, so in this case, the atom has 6 protons. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not correspond to the correct number of protons for an atom with the given electron configuration and mass number. Therefore, option B, 6 protons, is the correct answer.

2. What is the difference between emphysema and chronic bronchitis, both chronic obstructive pulmonary diseases (COPD)?

• A. Emphysema damages alveoli, while chronic bronchitis inflames airways.
• B. Emphysema causes coughing, while chronic bronchitis leads to shortness of breath.
• C. Emphysema is more reversible than chronic bronchitis.
• D. Emphysema affects only smokers, while chronic bronchitis can occur in non-smokers.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Emphysema is characterized by the destruction of alveoli in the lungs, leading to decreased surface area for gas exchange. Chronic bronchitis, on the other hand, involves inflammation and narrowing of the airways, leading to excessive mucus production and coughing. Therefore, the correct difference between emphysema and chronic bronchitis is that emphysema damages the alveoli, while chronic bronchitis inflames the airways. Choice B is incorrect because chronic bronchitis is associated with coughing, not emphysema. Choice C is incorrect as chronic bronchitis is typically less reversible compared to emphysema. Choice D is incorrect as both emphysema and chronic bronchitis are commonly seen in smokers, but chronic bronchitis can also occur in non-smokers due to other factors such as air pollution or genetic predisposition.

3. What are the components of the female external genitalia and their functions?

• A. Ovaries: internal reproductive organs
• B. Vulva: external structures of the female genitalia
• C. Uterus: internal reproductive organ for fetal development
• D. Vagina: birth canal

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The corrected answer is B: 'Vulva: external structures of the female genitalia.' The vulva includes external structures such as the labia, clitoris, and vaginal opening. These structures play roles in sexual arousal and protection of the internal genital organs. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they are internal reproductive organs. The ovaries produce eggs, the uterus houses the developing fetus, and the vagina serves as the birth canal. Hence, they are not components of the female external genitalia.

4. Which type of muscle tissue has a unique branching network and is found in the heart?

• A. Skeletal muscle
• B. Cardiac muscle
• C. Smooth muscle
• D. Multifidus muscle

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Cardiac muscle. Cardiac muscle is the type of muscle tissue that has a unique branching network and is found in the heart. This type of muscle is involuntary and contracts rhythmically to pump blood throughout the body. Skeletal muscle, choice A, is attached to bones and is responsible for voluntary movements. Smooth muscle, choice C, is found in the walls of internal organs and blood vessels, playing a role in involuntary movements. Multifidus muscle, choice D, is a specific muscle in the back that helps with spinal stability, unrelated to the unique branching network found in cardiac muscle.

5. Which type of white blood cell directly attacks and destroys pathogens like bacteria and viruses?

• A. Neutrophils
• B. Lymphocytes
• C. Monocytes
• D. Eosinophils

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Neutrophils are a type of white blood cell that plays a crucial role in the immune system's response to infections. They are phagocytes, meaning they engulf and destroy pathogens like bacteria and viruses. Neutrophils are the most abundant type of white blood cell and are known for their rapid response to infections, making them the primary cell type that directly attacks and destroys pathogens. Lymphocytes, although important in adaptive immunity, are not primarily responsible for directly attacking and destroying pathogens. Monocytes are involved in phagocytosis and immune response regulation but are not the primary cell type for direct pathogen destruction like neutrophils. Eosinophils are mainly involved in combating multicellular parasites and are not the primary cell type for targeting bacteria and viruses.

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