a medication dosage is listed as 12 teaspoon what is the equivalent dosage in milliliters 1 teaspoon 5ml
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HESI A2

HESI A2 Math Practice Test

1. A medication dosage is listed as 1/2 teaspoon. What is the equivalent dosage in milliliters (1 teaspoon = 5ml)?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Rationale: Given that 1 teaspoon is equal to 5ml, and the medication dosage is listed as 1/2 teaspoon, we need to find half of 5ml. 1/2 of 5ml = 5ml / 2 = 2.5ml Therefore, the equivalent dosage in milliliters for 1/2 teaspoon is 2.5ml.

2. The physician orders 60 mg of Augmentin; 80 mg/mL is on hand. How many milliliters will you give?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To find the volume required, divide the prescribed dose (60 mg) by the concentration available (80 mg/mL): 60 mg รท 80 mg/mL = 0.75 mL. Therefore, 0.75 mL is the correct amount to administer. Choice A (1 ml) is incorrect as it does not consider the concentration of the solution. Choice B (0.5 ml) is incorrect as it is half the correct amount. Choice D (1.25 ml) is incorrect as it is more than the calculated correct amount.

3. A patient weighs 180 pounds. What is their weight in kilograms (1kg = 2.2lbs)?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To convert pounds to kilograms, you need to divide the weight in pounds by the conversion factor of 2.2 (1kg = 2.2lbs). 180 pounds / 2.2 = 81.82 kg Rounded to the nearest whole number, the weight of 180 pounds is approximately 82kg. Therefore, the correct answer is 82kg, which is option C. Option B (75kg) is not correct as it is significantly lower than the calculated value. Options A (68kg) and D (90kg) are also incorrect as they do not match the converted weight of 180 pounds.

4. How many pints are in 56 ounces?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To convert ounces to pints, you need to know that 1 pint is equivalent to 16 ounces. Therefore, to find how many pints are in 56 ounces, you divide 56 by 16, which equals 3.5 pints. Hence, the correct answer is 3.5 pints. Choice B, 4 pints, is incorrect because it doesn't account for the conversion factor of 16 ounces per pint. Choice C, 3 pints, is incorrect as it is less than the actual conversion result. Choice D, 4.5 pints, is incorrect as it overestimates the number of pints in 56 ounces.

5. What is 110% of 40?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To find 110% of a number, you multiply the number by 1.10. Therefore, 1.10 * 40 = 44. Since 110% of 40 is 44, the correct answer is D. Choice A (60) is the result of finding 150% of 40, not 110%. Choice B (50) is incorrect as it represents 125% of 40. Choice C (55) is not the correct answer as it corresponds to 137.5% of 40.

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