Nursing Elites

1. Whose energy efficiency is greater?

• A. Herbivore
• B. Carnivore
• C. Omnivore
• D. Decomposer

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Decomposers have the greatest efficiency of energy among the given options. Decomposers break down organic matter, such as dead plants and animals, into simpler substances through the process of decomposition. This breakdown process results in the release of nutrients back into the ecosystem, making energy more readily available for other organisms to use. In contrast, herbivores, carnivores, and omnivores all derive their energy from the consumption of other living organisms, making their energy efficiency lower than that of decomposers. Herbivores consume plants for energy, which involves energy loss due to inefficiencies in converting plant matter into usable energy. Carnivores consume herbivores or other carnivores, leading to further energy loss through each trophic level. Omnivores consume both plant and animal matter, but their energy efficiency is still lower than decomposers because of the energy loss associated with consuming living organisms. Decomposers play a crucial role in recycling nutrients and energy in ecosystems, making them highly efficient in the utilization of energy.

2. Huntington’s disease is carried on the dominant allele. In a situation where two heterozygous parents have the disease, what percentage of their offspring are predicted to be disease-free?

• A. 0%
• B. 25%
• C. 50%
• D. 100%

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, both parents are heterozygous for Huntington's disease, meaning each carries one dominant allele (representing the disease) and one recessive allele (representing no disease). When they have offspring, there is a 25% chance that each child will inherit two recessive alleles, making them disease-free. The Punnett square for two heterozygous parents (Hh x Hh) yields a 25% probability of offspring being homozygous recessive (hh) and therefore disease-free. Choice A (0%) is incorrect because there is a possibility of disease-free offspring. Choice C (50%) is incorrect as it represents the likelihood of being a carrier. Choice D (100%) is incorrect as all offspring will not be disease-free in this scenario.

3. DNA bases include all but which of the following?

• A. Adenine
• B. Thymine
• C. Uracil
• D. Cytosine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Uracil. Uracil is not a DNA base; it is a base found only in RNA. The four bases in DNA are Adenine, Thymine, Cytosine, and Guanine. Choice A, Adenine, is a correct DNA base. Choice B, Thymine, is a correct DNA base. Choice D, Cytosine, is a correct DNA base. Therefore, Uracil is the only incorrect choice among the options provided.

4. Why does cytokinesis happen?

• A. DNA can duplicate
• B. Organelles can convert energy
• C. Bacteria can be killed
• D. Daughter cells can divide

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cytokinesis happens at the end of mitosis to physically separate the newly formed daughter cells. This allows the cell to divide into two separate daughter cells, each containing a complete set of genetic material (DNA) and organelles. The purpose of cytokinesis is to ensure that each daughter cell receives the necessary components to function independently. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because cytokinesis does not directly involve DNA duplication, organelles converting energy, or killing bacteria.

5. Select the strand of DNA that would match this segment: ACTTGCA

• A. TGAACGT
• B. GACCATG
• C. ACTTGCA
• D. None of the above

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct match for the DNA segment ACTTGCA is TGAACGT. In DNA, adenine (A) always pairs with thymine (T), and cytosine (C) always pairs with guanine (G). Therefore, the complementary strand to ACTTGCA should be TGAACGT, making choice A the correct answer. Choice B (GACCATG) does not follow the base pairing rules; hence, it is incorrect. Choice C (ACTTGCA) is the original segment, not its complementary strand. Choice D is incorrect as well because a matching strand does exist.

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