Nursing Elites

1. Which part of the brain controls breathing and heart rate?

• A. Cerebrum
• B. Medulla oblongata
• C. Thalamus
• D. Cerebellum

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The medulla oblongata is the correct answer because it is responsible for controlling involuntary functions such as breathing and heart rate. The cerebrum (Choice A) is primarily associated with higher brain functions like thinking and voluntary movements, not with regulating basic bodily functions like breathing and heart rate. The thalamus (Choice C) serves as a relay station for sensory information but is not directly involved in controlling breathing and heart rate. The cerebellum (Choice D) plays a role in coordination and balance, not in regulating respiratory and cardiac functions.

2. What is the definition of power in physics?

• A. The rate of change of energy
• B. The rate of doing work or transferring energy
• C. The measure of an object's potential energy
• D. The force exerted on an object

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'The rate of doing work or transferring energy.' Power in physics is defined as the rate at which work is done or energy is transferred. It is a measure of how quickly energy is transferred or converted. Power is not the same as energy itself but rather how fast energy is being transferred or converted. Choice A, 'The rate of change of energy,' is incorrect because power is about the rate of work or energy transfer, not just the change in energy. Choice C, 'The measure of an object's potential energy,' is incorrect as power is not a measure of potential energy but rather the rate of energy transfer. Choice D, 'The force exerted on an object,' is incorrect as power is related to work and energy transfer, not just force exerted.

3. Which of the following phases of mitosis is characterized by the separation of sister chromatids and their movement to opposite poles?

• A. Metaphase
• B. Anaphase
• C. Telophase
• D. Cytokinesis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During anaphase of mitosis, the sister chromatids, which are duplicated copies of a chromosome, separate and move towards opposite poles of the cell. This movement is facilitated by the shortening of microtubules attached to the chromatids. As a result, each pole of the cell receives a complete set of chromosomes, ensuring that the daughter cells produced after cell division will have the correct number of chromosomes. Metaphase is characterized by the alignment of chromosomes at the cell's equator, not their separation. Telophase is the phase following anaphase, where the separated chromatids reach the opposite poles and nuclear envelopes start to form around them. Cytokinesis is the final stage of cell division, where the cytoplasm is divided to form two separate daughter cells.

4. What are the components of an ECG?

• A. P wave, T wave, U wave
• B. P wave, QRS complex, T wave
• C. QRS complex, S wave, P wave
• D. T wave, S wave, U wave

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: P wave, QRS complex, T wave. The components of an ECG include the P wave (atrial depolarization), QRS complex (ventricular depolarization), and T wave (ventricular repolarization). The P wave represents atrial depolarization, the QRS complex represents ventricular depolarization, and the T wave represents ventricular repolarization. Options A, C, and D have incorrect combinations of ECG components. Option A incorrectly includes the U wave, which is not a standard component of a typical ECG. Option C includes the S wave, which is not a primary component of a standard ECG. Option D includes the U wave, which is not a standard component, and the S wave, which is not a primary component of an ECG. Therefore, option B is the most accurate combination of components for an ECG.

5. What initiates the process of coagulation?

• A. When blood changes from a gel to liquid form.
• B. Begins instantly after a blood vessel has been damaged.
• C. A simple single-phase response of the blood drying upon contact with the air.
• D. Also known as clotting, or the formation of fibrin.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The process of coagulation, also known as blood clotting, begins instantly after a blood vessel has been damaged. When a blood vessel is injured, the body quickly responds by initiating a cascade of reactions to form a blood clot, which helps to stop bleeding and promote healing. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because coagulation does not occur just when blood changes from a gel to liquid form, it is not a response of blood drying upon contact with air, and it is not simply the formation of fibrin. The primary trigger for coagulation is vascular injury.

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