Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following joints is an example of a hinge joint?

• A. Hip joint
• B. Elbow joint
• C. Shoulder joint
• D. Knee joint

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Elbow joint. A hinge joint allows movement primarily in one plane, enabling bending and straightening actions. The elbow joint specifically functions as a hinge joint, facilitating the bending and straightening of the arm. The other options, such as the hip joint (A), shoulder joint (C), and knee joint (D), are not examples of hinge joints as they allow movement in multiple planes with more complex motions.

2. What information can be obtained from the mass number of an element?

• A. The number of protons in the nucleus
• B. The total number of protons and neutrons
• C. The number of electrons in the valence shell
• D. The element's chemical reactivity

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The mass number of an element represents the total number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus. This information is crucial for determining the atomic mass of the element and understanding its stability and isotopes. The number of protons in the nucleus (option A) is represented by the atomic number, not the mass number. The number of electrons in the valence shell (option C) is related to the element's position in the periodic table and its chemical properties, but it is not directly determined by the mass number. The element's chemical reactivity (option D) is influenced by the number and arrangement of electrons in the atom's energy levels, not by the mass number.

3. Which of the following is a true statement about dominance in genetics?

• A. All genes adhere to Mendel’s law of dominance.
• B. A dominant allele will always be expressed.
• C. When two dominant alleles are present, the resulting phenotype will express both traits.
• D. There are three or more alleles possible for all genes.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In genetics, dominance refers to the relationship between two different alleles of a gene where one allele (dominant) masks the expression of another allele (recessive) in an individual's phenotype. The correct statement about dominance is that a dominant allele will always be expressed in the phenotype, even in the presence of a recessive allele. This means that if an individual has at least one dominant allele for a particular trait, that trait will be expressed. Choice A is incorrect because not all genes follow Mendel’s law of dominance; exceptions do exist. Choice C is incorrect because when two dominant alleles are present, only one will be expressed due to complete dominance. Choice D is incorrect as there can be more than three alleles for a gene, and not all genes have three or more alleles.

4. What is the process by which simple cells become highly specialized cells?

• A. Cellular complication
• B. Cellular specialization
• C. Cellular differentiation
• D. Cellular modification

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Cellular differentiation'. Cellular differentiation is the process by which simple cells become highly specialized cells. During cellular differentiation, cells acquire specific structures and functions that allow them to perform particular roles within an organism. This process involves the activation and silencing of specific genes, leading to the development of various cell types with distinct characteristics and functions. 'Cellular complication' (Choice A) is incorrect as it does not describe the specific process of cells becoming specialized. 'Cellular specialization' (Choice B) is not the most precise term for the process, as it does not capture the transformation from simple cells to specialized cells. 'Cellular modification' (Choice D) is incorrect as it is a vague term that does not specifically refer to the process of cellular specialization.

5. Which of the following correctly identifies a difference between the primary and secondary immune response?

• A. In the secondary response, macrophages migrate to the lymph nodes to present the foreign microorganism to helper T lymphocytes.
• B. The humoral immunity that characterizes the primary response is coordinated by B lymphocytes.
• C. The primary response is quicker and more powerful than the secondary response.
• D. Suppressor T cells are activated in the secondary response to prevent an overactive immune response.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The primary immune response is slower and less powerful compared to the secondary immune response. During the primary response, immune cells encounter the antigen for the first time, necessitating the activation and proliferation of specific immune cells. In contrast, the secondary response benefits from memory cells that quickly recognize the antigen, enabling a faster and more potent immune response. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. While macrophages play a role in presenting antigens to T cells, this is not a defining difference between primary and secondary responses. Humoral immunity involves B lymphocytes in both primary and secondary responses, so it does not differentiate the two. Suppressor T cells primarily function to regulate the immune response but are not a key factor distinguishing primary from secondary responses.

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