HESI A2
Practice HESI A2 Math Test
1. What is the numerical value of the Roman numeral XVII?
- A. 22
- B. 17
- C. 48
- D. 57
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The Roman numeral XVII represents the number 17. In Roman numerals, X stands for 10 and V stands for 5. When V (5) is subtracted from X (10), it results in 5 being subtracted from 10, which equals 5. Adding this to V (5) gives the total value of XVII as 17. Choice A is incorrect because it is not the correct numerical value of XVII. Choice C and D are also incorrect as they do not correspond to the Roman numeral XVII.
2. How many kilograms are in 2000 grams?
- A. 20 kilograms
- B. 2 kilograms
- C. 5 kilograms
- D. 10 kilograms
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To convert grams to kilograms, you need to divide by 1000 since there are 1000 grams in a kilogram. Therefore, 2000 grams is equal to 2 kilograms (2000 grams รท 1000 = 2 kilograms). The correct answer is B: 2 kilograms. Choice A, 20 kilograms, is incorrect because multiplying by 10 (not dividing by 1000) would give that result. Choice C, 5 kilograms, and Choice D, 10 kilograms, are also incorrect as they do not correctly convert grams to kilograms.
3. Bill has 2.5 vacation days left for the rest of the year and 1.25 sick days left. If Bill uses all of his sick days and his vacation days, how many days will he have off work?
- A. 1 day
- B. 3 days
- C. 2 days
- D. 4 days
Correct answer: D
Rationale: To find the total number of days Bill will have off, add his vacation days and sick days together. Bill has 2.5 vacation days and 1.25 sick days: 2.5 + 1.25 = 3.75 days When rounding to the nearest whole number, 3.75 rounds up to 4. Therefore, Bill will have 4 days off work.
4. What is 40% of 150?
- A. 60
- B. 65
- C. 70
- D. 85
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To find 40% of 150, you multiply 150 by 0.40 (which represents 40% in decimal form). This calculation results in 60. Therefore, choice A, 60, is the correct answer. Choice B (65), choice C (70), and choice D (85) are incorrect as they do not reflect the accurate calculation for finding 40% of 150.
5. Change 1/6 to a percent.
- A. 16.67%
- B. 15%
- C. 14%
- D. 17%
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To convert 1/6 to a percentage, you multiply 1/6 by 100. This gives you 16.67%. Choice A is correct. Choice B, 15%, is incorrect as it is the rounded value of 1/6 as a percentage. Choice C, 14%, and Choice D, 17%, are also incorrect as they do not represent the accurate conversion of 1/6 to a percentage.
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