Nursing Elites

1. The adaptive immune system has two main branches: humoral and cell-mediated immunity. Which type of immune cell is primarily responsible for antibody production?

• A. Helper T cells
• B. Cytotoxic T cells
• C. B cells
• D. Natural killer cells

Correct answer: C

Rationale: B cells are primarily responsible for antibody production in the adaptive immune system. When activated, B cells differentiate into plasma cells, which are specialized to produce antibodies. Helper T cells play a crucial role in activating B cells, but they do not directly produce antibodies. Cytotoxic T cells are involved in cell-mediated immunity by killing infected cells, while natural killer cells are part of the innate immune system and target virus-infected and cancerous cells. Therefore, the correct answer is C (B cells) as they are directly involved in the production of antibodies, essential for humoral immunity.

2. What is the primary function of B cells in the immune system?

• A. Directly attacking and engulfing pathogens
• B. Producing antibodies specific to a pathogen
• C. Destroying infected body cells
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: B

Rationale: B cells are a type of white blood cell that primarily functions by producing antibodies specific to a pathogen. These antibodies play a crucial role in marking pathogens for destruction by other immune cells. While B cells are essential for the immune response, they do not directly attack and engulf pathogens or destroy infected body cells. These functions are carried out by other immune cells like macrophages and cytotoxic T cells. Therefore, the correct answer is B, as it accurately reflects the primary role of B cells in the immune system.

3. A spring with a spring constant of 100 N/m is stretched 0.2 m from its equilibrium position. What is the potential energy stored in the spring?

• A. 2 J
• B. 4 J
• C. 8 J
• D. 20 J

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The potential energy stored in a spring is given by the formula \(PE = \frac{1}{2}kx^2\), where \(k\) is the spring constant and \(x\) is the displacement from the equilibrium position. Substituting the given values, we get \(PE = \frac{1}{2} \times 100 \times (0.2)^2 = 8\) J.

4. Mrs. Jones's class is conducting an experiment. They will substitute artificial sweetener for sugar in a cookie recipe to determine the effect on the overall color of the baked cookies. Which of the following should be included in the instructions for the experiment?

• A. When preparing the batch that includes artificial sweetener, 20% more water should be included.
• B. The bake temperature should be decreased from 425°F to 400°F.
• C. The batch with artificial sweetener should be baked on a stainless steel sheet.
• D. Ingredient proportions, bake time, bake temperature, and cookie sheet material should all be kept the same between the two batches.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To ensure a valid comparison and isolate the impact of the artificial sweetener, the experiment should maintain consistency in all factors except the sugar substitution. By keeping ingredient proportions, bake time, bake temperature, and cookie sheet material the same, any observed differences in the color of the cookies can be attributed to the artificial sweetener rather than other variables. Choices A, B, and C introduce additional variables that could confound the results. Choice A would alter the consistency of the recipe by adjusting the water content, Choice B would introduce a change in baking temperature which could affect the outcome, and Choice C suggests a change in the type of baking sheet used, potentially impacting the baking process and results. Therefore, maintaining consistency in all other factors except for the sugar substitution is crucial for a reliable experiment.

5. How are genetic markers utilized in paternity testing?

• A. They identify unique sequences in the father's DNA present in the child.
• B. They analyze the presence or absence of specific alleles for certain genes.
• C. They compare the child's blood type to the parents' blood types.
• D. They measure the child's physical resemblance to the father.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Genetic markers are specific DNA sequences that can vary among individuals. In paternity testing, genetic markers are used to compare the DNA of the child with that of the alleged father. By analyzing the presence or absence of specific alleles (different forms of a gene) at these genetic markers, scientists can determine the likelihood of paternity. This method is more accurate and reliable than comparing blood types (choice C) or physical resemblance (choice D) as genetic markers provide a direct comparison of DNA sequences between individuals. Therefore, option B is the correct choice as it accurately describes the use of genetic markers in paternity testing.

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