imagine you have an element with atomic number 20 and mass number 40 how many neutrons does it have

ATI TEAS 7

TEAS Test 7 science

1. Imagine you have an element with atomic number 20 and mass number 40. How many neutrons does it have?

A. 20
B. 40
C. 10
D. 20

Correct answer: C

Rationale: - The atomic number (Z) represents the number of protons in an atom. In this case, the atomic number is 20. - The mass number (A) represents the total number of protons and neutrons in an atom. In this case, the mass number is 40. - To find the number of neutrons, you subtract the atomic number from the mass number: Neutrons = Mass number - Atomic number. - Neutrons = 40 - 20 = 20. - Therefore, the element with atomic number 20 and mass number 40 has 20 neutrons.

2. Which property of matter remains constant regardless of changes in gravity?

A. Mass
B. Weight
C. Volume
D. Density

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Mass is a measure of the amount of matter in an object and remains constant regardless of changes in gravity. Weight, on the other hand, is the force of gravity acting on an object and can vary depending on the strength of gravity. Volume is the amount of space an object occupies, and density is the mass per unit volume of a substance, both of which can change with changes in gravity. Therefore, mass is the property that remains the same regardless of variations in gravitational force. Choice B, Weight, changes with gravity as it is a force dependent on gravity. Choices C and D, Volume and Density, can be affected by changes in gravity as they are related to the space an object occupies and the mass per unit volume, respectively.

3. Which of the following is NOT a recognized mode of natural selection?

A. Directional selection (favoring one extreme trait value on a spectrum)
B. Disruptive selection (favoring both extreme trait values on a spectrum)
C. Stabilizing selection (favoring the average trait value on a spectrum)
D. Sexual selection (selection based on mate choice that influences reproductive success)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A) Directional selection is a recognized mode of natural selection where one extreme trait value on a spectrum is favored over others, leading to a shift in the average trait value over time. B) Disruptive selection is a recognized mode of natural selection where both extreme trait values on a spectrum are favored over the average trait value, potentially causing the population to split into distinct groups. C) Stabilizing selection is a recognized mode of natural selection favoring the average trait value on a spectrum over extreme values, resulting in reduced genetic diversity. D) Sexual selection differs from traditional natural selection modes as it involves mate choice and competition for mates, not direct selection pressure on traits affecting survival and reproduction in the environment. Sexual selection can drive the evolution of traits enhancing an individual's attractiveness for mating purposes.

4. The lymphatic system works closely with which other body system to fight infections?

A. Respiratory system
B. Digestive system
C. Immune system
D. Nervous system

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The lymphatic system and the immune system work closely together to fight infections. The lymphatic system aids the immune system by circulating white blood cells, a crucial component in combating pathogens, throughout the body. This collaboration helps identify and eliminate harmful invaders to maintain the body's health and well-being. Choice A (Respiratory system) is incorrect because while it plays a role in oxygen exchange and removing carbon dioxide, it is not primarily responsible for fighting infections. Choice B (Digestive system) is incorrect as its main functions involve breaking down food and absorbing nutrients, not directly fighting infections. Choice D (Nervous system) is incorrect because its primary role is in transmitting signals throughout the body and controlling bodily functions, not in fighting infections.

5. How are genetic markers utilized in paternity testing?

A. They identify unique sequences in the father's DNA present in the child.
B. They analyze the presence or absence of specific alleles for certain genes.
C. They compare the child's blood type to the parents' blood types.
D. They measure the child's physical resemblance to the father.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Genetic markers are specific DNA sequences that can vary among individuals. In paternity testing, genetic markers are used to compare the DNA of the child with that of the alleged father. By analyzing the presence or absence of specific alleles (different forms of a gene) at these genetic markers, scientists can determine the likelihood of paternity. This method is more accurate and reliable than comparing blood types (choice C) or physical resemblance (choice D) as genetic markers provide a direct comparison of DNA sequences between individuals. Therefore, option B is the correct choice as it accurately describes the use of genetic markers in paternity testing.