Nursing Elites

1. How can a single gene mutation lead to multiple phenotypes depending on the organism?

• A. Pleiotropy describes the effect of one gene influencing multiple seemingly unrelated traits.
• B. Epigenetics involves environmental factors modifying gene expression without altering the DNA sequence.
• C. Genetic drift refers to random changes in allele frequencies within a population.
• D. Gene regulation controls the timing and level of gene expression within an organism.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A single gene mutation can lead to multiple phenotypes through pleiotropy, where one gene influences diverse traits or functions in an organism. This phenomenon occurs when the mutated gene affects different biochemical pathways, developmental processes, or cellular functions, resulting in a cascade of downstream effects that manifest as a variety of phenotypic outcomes. Choice B, epigenetics, involves modifications in gene expression influenced by environmental factors without altering the DNA sequence, which is not directly related to the question about single gene mutations causing multiple phenotypes. Choice C, genetic drift, refers to random changes in allele frequencies within a population, which is unrelated to the impact of a single gene mutation on multiple phenotypes. Choice D, gene regulation, focuses on controlling the timing and level of gene expression within an organism, which is not directly addressing how a single gene mutation can lead to diverse phenotypes.

2. What is the tough, fibrous tissue that connects bones at joints called?

• A. Cartilage
• B. Ligaments
• C. Tendons
• D. Fascia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Ligaments are the tough, fibrous tissue that connects bones at joints, providing stability and support to prevent excessive movement and potential injury. Cartilage is a smooth, rubbery connective tissue that covers bone ends at joints. Tendons connect muscles to bones, enabling movement. Fascia surrounds muscles, blood vessels, and nerves, providing support and structure to these tissues. In this context, ligaments are specifically the connective tissues that bind bones together at joints, not cartilage, tendons, or fascia.

3. Which of the following is NOT a function of the forebrain?

• A. To regulate blood pressure and heart rate
• B. To perceive and interpret emotional responses like fear and anger
• C. To perceive and interpret visual input from the eyes
• D. To integrate voluntary movement

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. The forebrain is primarily responsible for higher cognitive functions such as perception, interpretation, and integration of sensory information, emotional responses, and voluntary movements. Functions like regulating blood pressure and heart rate are mainly controlled by various structures in the brainstem, such as the medulla oblongata and the pons. Choices B, C, and D are all functions associated with the forebrain. Choice B relates to the limbic system, which is part of the forebrain responsible for emotional responses. Choice C corresponds to the occipital lobe in the forebrain, involved in processing visual information. Choice D involves the motor cortex and other areas in the forebrain that coordinate voluntary movements.

4. What type of particle carries no charge and mediates the strong nuclear force between protons and neutrons?

• A. Electron
• B. Photon
• C. Gluon
• D. Neutrino

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Gluon. Gluons are the particles responsible for mediating the strong nuclear force between protons and neutrons. They are the carriers of this force. Choice A, Electron, is incorrect as electrons are negatively charged. Choice B, Photon, is incorrect as photons are chargeless particles of light. Choice D, Neutrino, is incorrect as neutrinos are neutral particles with minimal mass and weak interactions with matter, not involved in mediating the strong nuclear force between protons and neutrons.

5. In meiosis, how many divisions occur, and how many daughter cells are produced?

• A. One division, two daughter cells
• B. Two divisions, four daughter cells
• C. Four divisions, eight daughter cells
• D. Eight divisions, sixteen daughter cells

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In meiosis, there are two divisions: meiosis I and meiosis II. During meiosis I, homologous chromosomes separate, resulting in two daughter cells with half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell. In meiosis II, sister chromatids separate, resulting in a total of four daughter cells, each with a haploid set of chromosomes. Therefore, meiosis involves two divisions and produces four daughter cells. Choice A is incorrect because meiosis involves two divisions, not one. Choice C and D are incorrect as meiosis does not go through four or eight divisions, resulting in eight or sixteen daughter cells.

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