Nursing Elites

1. What defines the systole phase in the cardiac cycle?

• A. Relaxation of the heart
• B. Contraction of the heart
• C. Diastole of the heart
• D. Pulse rate of the heart

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Contraction of the heart. Systole is the phase of the cardiac cycle during which the heart muscle contracts, pumping blood out of the chambers. It is essential for maintaining circulation and delivering oxygen and nutrients to the body's tissues. Diastole (choice C) is the relaxation phase of the heart when the chambers fill with blood. Pulse rate (choice D) is the number of heartbeats per minute, not specifically related to the systole phase. Choice A, 'Relaxation of the heart,' is incorrect because systole refers to the contraction phase of the cardiac cycle, not relaxation.

2. During embryonic development, most vertebrates exhibit structures called pharyngeal pouches. These pouches eventually develop into different structures in various vertebrate groups, such as the human jaw and inner ear. Pharyngeal pouches are an example of:

• A. Analogous structures with different evolutionary origins but similar functions
• B. Homologous structures with a common evolutionary origin but diverse functions
• C. Vestigial structures that no longer serve a vital function in some organisms
• D. Atavisms, the reappearance of a trait absent in recent generations

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pharyngeal pouches in vertebrates are an example of homologous structures because they share a common evolutionary origin. Despite developing into different structures in various vertebrate groups, such as the jaw and inner ear in humans, these structures originated from the same ancestral feature. This concept of homology highlights the evolutionary relationship between different species and how structures can be modified over time to serve different functions while retaining a common origin. Choice A is incorrect because analogous structures have similar functions but different evolutionary origins, which does not apply to pharyngeal pouches. Choice C is incorrect as vestigial structures are remnants of features that were functional in ancestors but have reduced or lost their original function, which is not the case for pharyngeal pouches. Choice D is incorrect because atavisms refer to the reappearance of traits absent in recent generations, which is not the characteristic of pharyngeal pouches.

3. What does the term 'solute' refer to in a solution?

• A. The substance present in the largest amount
• B. The substance that dissolves in the solvent
• C. The liquid portion of the solution
• D. The temperature at which the solution freezes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a solution, the term 'solute' specifically refers to the substance that dissolves in the solvent to create a solution. The solute is typically present in a smaller amount compared to the solvent. Option B correctly identifies the solute as the substance that undergoes dissolution in the solvent, making it the correct choice. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A is actually describing the solvent, which is the substance present in the largest amount in a solution. Choice C refers to the solvent, not the solute. Choice D is unrelated to the term 'solute' as it describes the colligative property of freezing point depression, not the solute itself.

4. Which test is commonly used to assess kidney function?

• A. Complete blood count (CBC)
• B. Blood sugar test
• C. Urinalysis
• D. Creatinine clearance test

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The creatinine clearance test is commonly used to assess kidney function. Creatinine, a waste product produced by muscles, is filtered out of the blood by the kidneys. The creatinine clearance test measures how efficiently the kidneys clear creatinine from the blood. Abnormal levels of creatinine in the blood can indicate kidney dysfunction, making this test crucial for evaluating kidney function. Choice A, a complete blood count (CBC), provides information about different blood cells and is not a specific test for kidney function. Choice B, a blood sugar test, assesses glucose levels in the blood and is not directly related to kidney function. Choice C, a urinalysis, evaluates the contents of urine and can provide information about kidney health but is not as specific for assessing kidney function as the creatinine clearance test.

5. Which of the following neurotransmitters slows down the activity of neurons, preventing them from becoming overexcited?

• A. Acetylcholine
• B. Dopamine
• C. GABA
• D. Serotonin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: GABA (gamma-aminobutyric acid). GABA acts as an inhibitory neurotransmitter that reduces neuronal activity, thus preventing overexcitation. Acetylcholine (choice A) is involved in muscle control and cognitive function, but it is not primarily responsible for slowing down neuronal activity. Dopamine (choice B) plays a role in reward-motivated behavior and motor control, rather than inhibiting neuronal firing. Serotonin (choice D) is involved in mood regulation, sleep, and appetite but does not primarily slow down neuronal activity to prevent overexcitation.

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