Nursing Elites

1. A patient's body is not properly filtering blood. Which of the following body parts is most likely malfunctioning?

• A. Medulla
• B. Heart
• C. Nephrons
• D. Renal cortex

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Nephrons are the functional units of the kidneys responsible for filtering blood and removing waste products to form urine. If a patient's body is not properly filtering blood, it is most likely due to dysfunction or impairment in the nephrons of the kidneys. The heart is responsible for pumping blood, not filtering it, making choice B incorrect. The medulla and renal cortex are specific parts of the kidney but do not directly perform the filtration function carried out by the nephrons, making choices A and D incorrect.

2. Which of the following structures in the cell is responsible for producing ATP?

• A. Ribosome
• B. Nucleus
• C. Mitochondria
• D. Endoplasmic reticulum

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Mitochondria. Mitochondria are known as the powerhouse of the cell and are responsible for producing ATP, the primary energy currency of the cell through cellular respiration. Ribosomes (Choice A) are involved in protein synthesis, the nucleus (Choice B) stores genetic material and controls cell activities, and the endoplasmic reticulum (Choice D) plays a role in protein synthesis, lipid metabolism, and detoxification, but none of these structures are directly responsible for producing ATP.

3. The Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium describes a population that is:

• A. Undergoing rapid evolution due to strong directional selection.
• B. Not evolving and at genetic equilibrium with stable allele frequencies.
• C. Experiencing a founder effect leading to a reduction in genetic diversity.
• D. Dominated by a single homozygous genotype that eliminates all variation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium describes a theoretical population in which allele frequencies remain constant from generation to generation, indicating that the population is not evolving. This equilibrium occurs under specific conditions: no mutation, no gene flow, random mating, a large population size, and no natural selection. In this scenario, all genotypes are in proportion to the allele frequencies, and genetic diversity is maintained. Options A, C, and D do not accurately describe a population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. Option A suggests rapid evolution due to strong directional selection, which would disrupt the equilibrium. Option C mentions a founder effect, which can reduce genetic diversity but is not a characteristic of a population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. Option D describes a population dominated by a single homozygous genotype, which also does not align with the genetic diversity seen in a population at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.

4. When light reflects from a surface, what determines the angle of reflection?

• A. The material of the surface
• B. The wavelength of the light
• C. The angle of incidence
• D. The intensity of the light

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The angle of reflection is determined by the angle of incidence according to the law of reflection, which states that the angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection. When light reflects off a surface, the angle at which it strikes the surface (angle of incidence) is the key factor in determining the angle at which it reflects (angle of reflection). The material of the surface, the wavelength of the light, and the intensity of the light do not directly influence the angle of reflection in this context. Therefore, the correct answer is the angle of incidence (Choice C). The material of the surface (Choice A) does affect other properties like reflectivity but does not directly determine the angle of reflection. The wavelength of the light (Choice B) determines its color or frequency but not the angle of reflection. The intensity of the light (Choice D) is related to the brightness of the light but does not dictate the angle at which light reflects from a surface.

5. What is the primary function of the CRISPR-Cas9 system in gene editing?

• A. To amplify specific DNA sequences.
• B. To cut DNA at specific locations.
• C. To deliver genes into cells.
• D. To sequence entire genomes.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The CRISPR-Cas9 system is a powerful tool used in gene editing to precisely target and cut DNA at specific locations within the genome. This system consists of a guide RNA that directs the Cas9 enzyme to the desired DNA sequence, where it creates a double-strand break. This break can then be repaired by the cell's natural DNA repair mechanisms, allowing for the introduction of specific genetic modifications. Options A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately describe the primary function of the CRISPR-Cas9 system in gene editing. Amplifying DNA sequences, delivering genes into cells, and sequencing entire genomes are not the main functions of the CRISPR-Cas9 system, which is primarily focused on precise DNA cutting for targeted genetic modifications.

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