HESI A2
Chemistry HESI A2 Quizlet
1. How many electron pairs are shared to form a double covalent bond?
- A. 1
- B. 2
- C. 3
- D. 4
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. In a double covalent bond, two pairs of electrons are shared between two atoms. This sharing of two electron pairs results in a stronger bond compared to a single covalent bond where only one pair of electrons is shared. Choice A is incorrect because a single covalent bond involves the sharing of one pair of electrons. Choices C and D are incorrect as they do not represent the correct number of electron pairs shared in a double covalent bond.
2. What is an alloy in which another metal is dissolved in mercury (Hg) called?
- A. Electrum
- B. Amalgam
- C. Solder
- D. Bronze
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An amalgam is a type of alloy where another metal is dissolved in mercury (Hg). This process forms a unique mixture that has various applications in dentistry, chemistry, and other fields. Electrum is a natural alloy of gold and silver, solder is a metal alloy used to join other metals together, and bronze is a copper-tin alloy. Therefore, the correct answer is B - Amalgam.
3. Which statement is true of a saturated solution?
- A. It has more solute than can dissolve in the solvent.
- B. It has less solute that can dissolve in the solvent.
- C. It has the maximum concentration of the solute dissolved in the solvent.
- D. It contains a precipitate that lowers the concentration of the solute in the solvent.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A saturated solution contains the maximum concentration of solute that can be dissolved in a specific amount of solvent at a particular temperature. Once a solution is saturated, adding more solute will not increase its concentration since the excess solute will not dissolve and will instead form a precipitate, indicating that the solution is at its maximum capacity. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a saturated solution has reached its limit in dissolving solute, so it cannot contain more solute than it can dissolve (choice A), less solute than it can dissolve (choice B), or a precipitate that lowers the concentration of the solute in the solvent (choice D).
4. A chemist takes 100 mL of a 40 g NaCl solution and dilutes it to 1L. What is the concentration (molarity) of the new solution?
- A. 0.04 M NaCl
- B. 0.25 M NaCl
- C. 0.40 M NaCl
- D. 2.5 M NaCl
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Initially, the chemist has 40 g of NaCl in 100 mL of solution. To find the initial molarity, we need to calculate the number of moles of NaCl using the molar mass of NaCl (58.44 g/mol). After dilution to 1 L, the molarity of the new solution can be calculated by dividing the moles of NaCl by the total volume in liters. Therefore, the concentration (molarity) of the new solution is 0.40 M NaCl. Choice A (0.04 M NaCl) is incorrect because it doesn't consider the correct molar concentration after dilution. Choice B (0.25 M NaCl) is incorrect as it also doesn't account for the correct molar concentration post-dilution. Choice D (2.5 M NaCl) is incorrect as it is too concentrated given the initial amount of NaCl and the dilution factor.
5. What is the charge of a beta particle?
- A. -1
- B. +1
- C. +2
- D. No charge
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A beta particle has a charge of -1. Beta particles are high-energy, high-speed electrons emitted during radioactive decay processes. Since electrons carry a charge of -1, beta particles also carry a charge of -1. This negative charge indicates that beta particles are negatively charged. Option B is incorrect as it suggests a positive charge, which is not the case for beta particles. Option C is incorrect as it indicates a higher positive charge, which is not true for beta particles. Option D is incorrect as beta particles do have a charge, which is negative.
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