ATI TEAS 7
Mometrix TEAS 7 science practice test
1. Which property of a wave determines its energy?
- A. Wavelength
- B. Amplitude
- C. Frequency
- D. Velocity
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The energy of a wave is determined by its amplitude, which is the measure of its maximum displacement from the equilibrium position. Waves with higher amplitudes carry more energy as energy is directly proportional to amplitude. Therefore, the correct answer is B) Amplitude. Choice A (Wavelength) does not determine the energy of a wave; it is related to the spatial length between wave crests. Choice C (Frequency) is not the property that determines a wave's energy; it refers to the number of complete oscillations a wave undergoes in a given time. Choice D (Velocity) is the speed at which a wave propagates through a medium and is not directly related to its energy.
2. Which of the following organs is NOT directly involved in urine production?
- A. Kidneys
- B. Urethra
- C. Lungs
- D. Bladder
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, Urethra. The urethra is not directly involved in urine production. It is a tube that carries urine from the bladder to the outside of the body. The kidneys are responsible for filtering waste and excess substances from the blood to produce urine. The bladder stores urine until it is expelled from the body. The lungs are not involved in urine production; they are responsible for gas exchange during respiration. Choice A, Kidneys, is directly involved in urine production by filtering the blood to form urine. Choice C, Lungs, plays a role in respiration and oxygen exchange but is not directly involved in urine production. Choice D, Bladder, stores urine before it is excreted from the body and is directly involved in the final stages of urine elimination, unlike the urethra.
3. Which statement most accurately compares and contrasts the structures of DNA and RNA?
- A. Both DNA and RNA have 4 nucleotide bases. Three of the bases are the same, but the fourth base is thymine in DNA and uracil in RNA.
- B. Both DNA and RNA have the same 4 nucleotide bases. However, the nucleotides bond differently in DNA compared to RNA.
- C. Both DNA and RNA have different numbers of nucleotide bases. DNA is a double helix while RNA is a single strand.
- D. Both DNA and RNA have a double helix structure. However, DNA contains 6 nucleotide bases and RNA contains 4 nucleotide bases.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because DNA and RNA both consist of 4 nucleotide bases, namely adenine, cytosine, and guanine, which are common in both. The key difference lies in the fourth base, which is thymine in DNA and uracil in RNA. This distinction is fundamental in understanding the structural variances between DNA and RNA. Choice B is incorrect as it incorrectly states that the nucleotides bond differently in DNA compared to RNA without specifying the crucial base differences. Choice C is inaccurate as it misrepresents the numbers of nucleotide bases in DNA and RNA, and incorrectly describes DNA as a double helix and RNA as a single strand, which is not related to the difference in bases. Choice D is incorrect as it inaccurately portrays DNA with 6 nucleotide bases and RNA with 4, which is not true; both DNA and RNA have 4 nucleotide bases, but with differences in one of the bases.
4. Which of the following is an example of a decomposition reaction?
- A. 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O
- B. CaCO3 → CaO + CO2
- C. 2Na + Cl2 → 2NaCl
- D. N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A decomposition reaction involves a single compound breaking down into two or more simpler substances. In option B, CaCO3 breaks down into CaO and CO2, making it an example of a decomposition reaction. Options A, C, and D involve different types of chemical reactions such as synthesis, combination, and combustion, respectively. Option A represents a synthesis reaction, where two elements combine to form a compound. Option C demonstrates a combination reaction, where two elements combine to form a compound. Option D is an example of a synthesis reaction, where two reactants combine to form a single compound. It is important to recognize the specific characteristics of each type of chemical reaction to identify the correct example of decomposition reaction, where a compound breaks down into simpler products.
5. What is the primary function of the placenta during pregnancy?
- A. Produce insulin
- B. Facilitate gas exchange between mother and fetus
- C. Excrete waste products from the fetus
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The primary function of the placenta during pregnancy is to facilitate the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the mother and the fetus. This ensures that the fetus receives oxygen and eliminates carbon dioxide, supporting its growth and development. While the placenta also allows for the transfer of nutrients and waste products between the mother and the fetus, its main role is to ensure proper gas exchange. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as the primary role of the placenta is not to produce insulin or excrete waste products from the fetus. Selecting the correct answer, choice B, highlights the crucial role of the placenta in providing oxygen to the fetus and removing carbon dioxide, which are essential for fetal well-being and development.
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