the process of coagulation

ATI TEAS 7

ATI TEAS Science Test

1. What initiates the process of coagulation?

A. When blood changes from a gel to liquid form.
B. Begins instantly after a blood vessel has been damaged.
C. A simple single-phase response of the blood drying upon contact with the air.
D. Also known as clotting, or the formation of fibrin.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The process of coagulation, also known as blood clotting, begins instantly after a blood vessel has been damaged. When a blood vessel is injured, the body quickly responds by initiating a cascade of reactions to form a blood clot, which helps to stop bleeding and promote healing. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because coagulation does not occur just when blood changes from a gel to liquid form, it is not a response of blood drying upon contact with air, and it is not simply the formation of fibrin. The primary trigger for coagulation is vascular injury.

2. The Minimum Inhibitory Concentration (MIC) of an antibiotic refers to:

A. The lowest concentration that kills bacteria
B. The dose required for 50% bacterial inhibition
C. The time it takes for an antibiotic to work
D. The spectrum of bacteria the antibiotic targets

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A) The lowest concentration that kills bacteria is known as the Minimum Bactericidal Concentration (MBC), not the Minimum Inhibitory Concentration (MIC). MIC is the lowest concentration of an antibiotic that inhibits visible growth of bacteria. B) The MIC of an antibiotic is the concentration at which bacterial growth is inhibited by 50%. This concentration is used to determine the effectiveness of an antibiotic against a specific bacterium. C) The time it takes for an antibiotic to work is not described by the MIC. MIC is a measure of concentration, not time. D) The spectrum of bacteria the antibiotic targets is not defined by the MIC. The MIC value is specific to a particular antibiotic and bacterium, regardless of the spectrum of activity of the antibiotic.

3. What is the difference between a homozygous recessive genotype and a homozygous dominant genotype?

A. Both have the same phenotype, but different genotypes.
B. Both have the same genotype, but different phenotypes.
C. Homozygous recessive has two dominant alleles, while homozygous dominant has two recessive alleles.
D. Homozygous recessive has two identical recessive alleles, while homozygous dominant has two identical dominant alleles.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: - Homozygous recessive genotype refers to an individual having two identical recessive alleles for a particular gene (e.g., rr for a trait where r represents the recessive allele). - Homozygous dominant genotype refers to an individual having two identical dominant alleles for a particular gene (e.g., RR for a trait where R represents the dominant allele). - The difference between the two genotypes lies in the specific alleles present in each case, with homozygous recessive having two recessive alleles and homozygous dominant having two dominant alleles. - This genetic difference results in different phenotypes being expressed, as the dominant allele typically masks the expression of the recessive allele in heterozygous individuals.

4. Which process is characterized by nuclear fission?

A. A heavy nucleus capturing a neutron and releasing energy
B. The fusion of two nuclei to form a heavier element
C. A lighter element emitting an alpha particle through radioactive decay
D. An electron being absorbed by the nucleus with the release of a gamma ray

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Nuclear fission is the process where a heavy nucleus, like uranium-235, captures a neutron, leading to its division into two lighter nuclei. This process releases a substantial amount of energy in the form of heat and gamma rays. It is utilized in nuclear power plants and atomic bombs due to its capacity to produce significant energy. Choices B, C, and D describe different nuclear processes: fusion of two nuclei to form a heavier element, emission of alpha particles from a lighter element through radioactive decay, and absorption of an electron by the nucleus with the release of a gamma ray, respectively. These processes are distinct from nuclear fission and do not involve the splitting of heavy nuclei into lighter ones.

5. Chromatids divide into identical chromosomes and migrate to opposite ends of the cell in which of the following phases of mitosis?

A. metaphase
B. anaphase
C. prophase
D. telophase

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During anaphase of mitosis, the sister chromatids detach from each other and migrate to opposite poles of the cell. This process ensures that each daughter cell ultimately receives an identical set of chromosomes, as the chromatids separate and become individual chromosomes again. This is a crucial step in ensuring accurate distribution of genetic material during cell division. In metaphase, the chromosomes align at the cell's equator but do not separate yet. Prophase is the phase where chromatin condenses into chromosomes and the nuclear envelope breaks down. Telophase is the final phase where the nuclear envelope reforms around the separated chromosomes.