NCLEX-PN
Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX Questions
1. While performing a physical assessment on a 6-month-old infant, the nurse observes head lag. Which of the following nursing actions should the nurse perform first?
- A. Ask the parents to allow the infant to lie on his stomach to promote muscle development.
- B. Notify the physician because a developmental or neurological evaluation is indicated.
- C. Document the findings as abnormal in the nurse's notes.
- D. Explain to the parents that their child is likely to have developmental delays.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Head lag should be completely resolved by 4 months of age. Continuing head lag at 6 months of age indicates the need for further developmental or neurological evaluation. Laying the infant on his stomach promotes muscle development of the neck and shoulder muscles, but because of the age of this child, a referral should be the first action. The findings are abnormal for a 6-month-old infant. Significant head lag can be seen in infants with Down syndrome and hypoxia, as well as neurological and other metabolic disorders. While some of these disorders might include developmental delays, stating this to the parents without a proper evaluation can cause unnecessary distress. The priority is to identify the cause of the head lag through a medical evaluation before discussing potential outcomes with the parents.
2. A nurse is preparing to screen a client's vision with the use of a Snellen chart. The nurse uses which technique?
- A. Tests the right eye, then tests the left eye, and finally tests both eyes together
- B. Assesses both eyes together, then assesses the right and left eyes separately
- C. Asks the client to stand 40 feet from the chart and read the largest line on the chart
- D. Asks the client to stand 40 feet from the chart and read the line that can be read 200 feet away by someone with unimpaired vision
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To test visual acuity with the use of a Snellen chart, the nurse places the chart in a well-lit spot at the client's eye level, with the client positioned exactly 20 feet from the chart. The client shields one eye at a time with an opaque card during the test. After testing each eye separately, both eyes are assessed together. The client is asked to read the smallest line of letters visible and encouraged to read the next smallest line as well. Therefore, option A is correct as it describes the correct technique of testing one eye at a time before assessing both eyes together. Option B is incorrect as it assesses both eyes together first, which is not the standard procedure. Options C and D are incorrect as they suggest standing 40 feet from the chart, which contradicts the standard distance of 20 feet for a Snellen chart test.
3. When teaching a woman about possible side effects of hormone replacement therapy, the nurse should include information about all of the following except:
- A. Hypoglycemia in diabetic women.
- B. The possible return of monthly menses when taking combination hormones.
- C. Increased risk of gallbladder disease.
- D. Increased risk of breast, cervical, and ovarian cancer with long-term use.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Hypoglycemia in diabetic women.' When educating a woman about hormone replacement therapy, it is important to discuss the possible side effects. It is true that monthly menses might return when taking combination hormones, as the progestin can cause this. Additionally, there is an increased risk of gallbladder disease associated with hormone replacement therapy. Furthermore, long-term use of hormone replacement therapy is linked to an increased risk of breast, cervical, and ovarian cancer. However, hypoglycemia is not a common side effect of hormone replacement therapy, especially in diabetic women. In fact, estrogen can have a positive impact on glucose control in some cases, so hypoglycemia would not be a typical concern.
4. A nurse, assigned to care for a hospitalized child who is 8 years old, assists with planning care, taking into account Erik Erikson's theory of psychosocial development. According to Erikson's theory, which task represents the primary developmental task of this child?
- A. Developing a sense of control over self and body functions
- B. Mastering useful skills and tools
- C. Gaining independence from parents
- D. Developing a sense of trust in the world
Correct answer: B
Rationale: According to Erikson's theory of psychosocial development, the primary task for an 8-year-old child aligns with the stage of industry versus inferiority. This stage focuses on mastering useful skills and tools of the culture, emphasizing competence in various areas. Option A, 'Developing a sense of control over self and body functions,' is more characteristic of the toddler stage, emphasizing autonomy and self-regulation. Option C, 'Gaining independence from parents,' is more relevant to the adolescent stage, where identity development and autonomy become crucial. Option D, 'Developing a sense of trust in the world,' pertains to the infant stage, highlighting the importance of forming secure attachments. Therefore, the correct answer is B as it directly corresponds to the developmental tasks associated with an 8-year-old child according to Erikson's theory.
5. The client has an order for an IV piggyback of Ceftriaxone 750mg in 50mL D5W to run over 30 minutes. What is the appropriate drip rate?
- A. 100 mL/hr
- B. 150 mL/hr
- C. 200 mL/hr
- D. 50 mL/hr
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the drip rate, you need to convert the time from minutes to hours. The formula is (Volume to be infused / Time for infusion in minutes) x (60 minutes / 1 hour). Substituting the values, (50 mL / 30 min) x (60 min / 1 hr) = 100 mL/hr. Therefore, the appropriate drip rate is 100 mL/hr. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not match the calculated drip rate. Option A, 100 mL/hr, is the correct drip rate for administering Ceftriaxone 750mg in 50mL D5W over 30 minutes.
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