NCLEX-PN
NCLEX PN Practice Questions Quizlet
1. A client states, "I eat a well-balanced diet. I do not smoke. I exercise regularly, and I have a yearly checkup with my physician. What else can I do to help prevent cancer?"? The nurse should respond with which of the following statements?
- A. Sleep at least 6-8 hours per night.
- B. Practice monthly self-breast examinations.
- C. Reduce stress.
- D. All of the above.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: All of the choices are methods of preventing cancer. Sleep is important in maintaining homeostasis, which helps the body respond to disease. Monthly breast examination can indicate cancer or fibrocystic disease. Stress can have a physiological response in the body that decreases the immune response and increases the risk of disease. Therefore, all the options provided are important in cancer prevention, making 'All of the above' the correct answer. Option A is crucial for overall health and immune function, option B aids in early detection, and option C is vital as chronic stress can weaken the immune system.
2. The teaching plan for a postpartum client who is about to be discharged should include which of the following instructions?
- A. "It is normal for your breasts to be tender. You should call the physician if you also have redness and fatigue."?
- B. "Because your baby was delivered vaginally, you might have to urinate more frequently."?
- C. "It is normal to run a low-grade temperature for a few days. If it is higher than 100�F, call your physician."?
- D. "Be sure to call your physician if your vaginal discharge becomes bright red."?
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the postpartum client to call the physician if their vaginal discharge becomes bright red. The vaginal discharge after birth is called lochia, and a return to red or containing clots could indicate impending hemorrhage or infection, necessitating notification of the physician. Choice A is incorrect because although some tenderness may be expected, redness and fatigue are clinical manifestations of mastitis, not normal postpartum changes. Choice B is also incorrect as increased frequency of urination after vaginal delivery could indicate a urinary tract infection, not a normal postpartum change. Choice C is incorrect because running a low-grade temperature for a few days is not expected postpartum; an elevated temperature above 100�F should be reported to the physician as it could indicate infection.
3. When should rehabilitation services begin?
- A. when the client enters the health care system.
- B. after the client requests rehabilitation services.
- C. after the client's physical condition stabilizes.
- D. when the client is discharged from the hospital.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Rehabilitation services should begin when the client enters the health care system to ensure early intervention and optimal outcomes. Initiating rehabilitation early can prevent complications, maximize recovery potential, and improve overall health outcomes. Choice B is incorrect because delaying rehabilitation until the client requests it may result in missed opportunities for timely intervention. Choice C is incorrect as waiting for the client's physical condition to stabilize can lead to unnecessary delays in starting the rehabilitation process, potentially slowing down recovery progress. Choice D is incorrect because starting rehabilitation only after discharge can hinder the recovery process by missing out on crucial early stages of intervention and support.
4. A nurse is preparing to assess the function of a client's spinal accessory nerve. Which action does the nurse ask the client to take to aid assessment of this nerve?
- A. Smiling
- B. Clenching the teeth
- C. Shrugging the shoulders against the nurse's resistance
- D. Identifying by taste a substance placed on the back of the tongue
Correct answer: C
Rationale: To assess cranial nerve XI (spinal accessory nerve), the examiner checks the sternomastoid and trapezius muscles for equal size. Equal strength is assessed by asking the client to rotate the head forcibly against resistance applied to the side of the chin and by asking the client to shrug the shoulders against resistance. These movements should feel equally strong on the two sides. The client is asked to smile as a test of the function of cranial nerve VII (facial nerve). The client's ability to clench the teeth is used to assess the motor function of cranial nerve V (trigeminal nerve). The client's taste perception is used to assess the sensory function of cranial nerve IX (glossopharyngeal nerve). Therefore, the correct action to assess the spinal accessory nerve is to ask the client to shrug the shoulders against resistance. The other options are used to assess different cranial nerves, making them incorrect choices.
5. What is the intent of the Patient Self Determination Act (PSDA) of 1990?
- A. Enhance personal control over healthcare decisions.
- B. Encourage medical treatment decision making prior to need.
- C. Establish a federal standard for living wills and durable powers of attorney.
- D. Emphasize client education.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: The purpose of the PSDA is to encourage medical treatment decision-making before it becomes necessary. This legislation aims to empower individuals to make their own healthcare choices in advance. Choice A is incorrect because while enhancing personal control over healthcare decisions is important, the primary goal of the PSDA is to facilitate medical decision-making before the need arises. Choice C is incorrect as the PSDA does not establish a federal standard for living wills and durable powers of attorney; instead, it encourages individuals to create their own advance directives according to state-specific regulations. Choice D is incorrect because while client education is valuable, the main focus of the PSDA is on empowering individuals to plan for their future healthcare needs.
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