NCLEX-PN
Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX Questions
1. A nurse in the healthcare provider's office is checking the Babinski reflex in a 3-month-old infant. The nurse determines that the infant's response is normal if which finding is noted?
- A. The fingers curl tightly, and the toes curl forward.
- B. The toes flare, and the big toe is dorsiflexed.
- C. There is extension of the extremities on the side to which the head is turned, with flexion on the opposite side.
- D. The infant turns to the side that is touched.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To elicit the Babinski reflex, the nurse strokes the lateral sole of the foot from the heel to across the base of the toes. In the expected response, the toes flare, and the big toe dorsiflexes. The Babinski reflex disappears at 12 months of age. Turning to the side that is touched is the expected response when the rooting reflex is elicited. Tight curling of the fingers and forward curling of the toes is the expected response when the grasp reflex (palmar and plantar) is elicited. Extension of the extremities on the side to which the head is turned with flexion on the opposite side is the expected response when the tonic neck reflex is elicited.
2. A nurse is explaining a nonstress test to a pregnant client. The nurse explains that the results are nonreactive if which finding is noted on the electronic monitoring recording strip?
- A. Two fetal heart accelerations within a 20-minute period, peaking at 15 beats/min above baseline and lasting 15 seconds from baseline to baseline
- B. Accelerations without fetal movement with fetal heart rate (FHR) increases of 15 beats/min for 15 seconds
- C. Acceleration of the FHR by 25 to 30 beats/min for at least 15 seconds in response to fetal movement
- D. Absence of accelerations after fetal movement
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Absence of accelerations after fetal movement.' In a nonreactive (nonreassuring) stress test, the monitor recording would not show accelerations after fetal movement within a 40-minute period. This absence of accelerations indicates a nonreactive result. Choices A, B, and C describe different patterns of fetal heart rate accelerations that are not indicative of a nonreactive result in a nonstress test, making them incorrect. Choice A describes the characteristics of a reactive (reassuring) result, where there should be at least two fetal heart accelerations within a 20-minute period, peaking at least 15 beats/min above the baseline, and lasting 15 seconds from baseline to baseline. Choice B incorrectly states 'Accelerations without fetal movement,' which is contradictory. Choice C describes an acceleration response to fetal movement, which does not signify a nonreactive result.
3. The client provides information to a pregnant client who is experiencing nausea and vomiting about measures to relieve the discomfort. Which statement by the mother indicates the need for further information?
- A. ''I should eat five or six small meals a day rather than three full meals.''
- B. ''I need to be sure not to drink liquids with my meals.''
- C. ''I should keep dry crackers at my bedside and eat them before I get out of bed in the morning.''
- D. ''I need to avoid eating fried or greasy foods.''
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To alleviate nausea and vomiting, the client should avoid drinking liquids with meals. The client should keep dry crackers at her bedside, avoid fried foods, and eat smaller meals. Additionally, the client should eat dry crackers every 2 hours to prevent an empty stomach and avoid spicy foods and foods with strong odors, such as onion and cabbage. The incorrect choices are: A) Eating five or six small meals a day instead of three full meals is a correct recommendation. C) Keeping dry crackers at her bedside and eating them before getting out of bed in the morning is a helpful suggestion. D) Avoiding fried or greasy foods is a valid advice to alleviate nausea and vomiting.
4. After reviewing the child's immunization record, which scheduled vaccine should the nurse prepare to administer next?
- A. Hib
- B. IPV
- C. MMR
- D. DTaP
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is DTaP. DTaP is administered at 2, 4, and 6 months of age; between 15 and 18 months of age; and between 4 and 6 years of age. Since the child has only received three doses of this vaccine, the next dose of DTaP should be administered. The other options are incorrect because Hib is administered at 2, 4, and 6 months of age and between 12 and 15 months; IPV is administered at 2, 4, and 6 months of age and between 4 and 6 years of age; MMR is administered between 12 and 15 months of age and again between 4 and 6 years of age.
5. A nurse preparing to examine a client’s eyes plans to perform a confrontation test. The nurse tells the client that this test measures which aspect of vision?
- A. Near vision
- B. Color vision
- C. Distant vision
- D. Peripheral vision
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Peripheral vision. The confrontation test is a gross measure of peripheral vision. It compares the client’s peripheral vision with the nurse’s, assuming that the nurse’s vision is normal. During the test, the nurse positions themselves at eye level with the client, about 2 feet away, and directs the client to cover one eye with an opaque card. The nurse covers the eye opposite the client’s covered one and slowly moves a target (like a pencil) from the periphery in several directions. The client is asked to indicate when they see the target, which should coincide with when the nurse sees it. Near vision is tested using a handheld vision screener with various sizes of print, color vision with the Ishihara test, and distant vision with a Snellen chart. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not measure peripheral vision, which is the focus of the confrontation test.
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