Nursing Elites

1. A nurse sees documentation in the client's record indicating that the health care provider has noted the presence of adventitious breath sounds. The nurse knows that these types of sounds have which aspect?

• A. Normally heard in the lungs
• B. Hollow sounds heard over the trachea and larynx
• C. Rustling sounds heard over the peripheral lung fields
• D. Abnormal sounds that should not be heard in the lungs

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Adventitious breath sounds are abnormal sounds that are not normally heard in the lungs. These sounds are added sounds superimposed on the breath sounds. They are caused by air colliding with secretions in the tracheobronchial passageways or when previously deflated airways pop open. Hollow sounds heard over the trachea and larynx are normal bronchial (tracheal) breath sounds, not adventitious. Rustling sounds heard over the peripheral lung fields are normal vesicular breath sounds, not adventitious. Therefore, the correct answer is that adventitious breath sounds are abnormal sounds that should not be heard in the lungs.

2. A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:

• A. naloxone (Narcan)
• B. labetalol (Normodyne)
• C. neostigmine (Prostigmin)
• D. thiothixene (Navane)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is experiencing respiratory depression due to opiate overdose. Naloxone (Narcan) is an opioid antagonist that can rapidly reverse the effects of opiates by competitively binding to opioid receptors and displacing the opiates. This action can restore normal respiration and consciousness. Labetalol (Normodyne) is a non-selective beta-blocker used to manage hypertension, not opioid-induced respiratory depression. Neostigmine (Prostigmin) is a cholinesterase inhibitor used to reverse neuromuscular blockade, not opioid overdose. Thiothixene (Navane) is an antipsychotic medication used to manage psychotic disorders, not opioid toxicity.

3. The teaching plan for a postpartum client who is about to be discharged should include which of the following instructions?

• A. "It is normal for your breasts to be tender. You should call the physician if you also have redness and fatigue."?
• B. "Because your baby was delivered vaginally, you might have to urinate more frequently."?
• C. "It is normal to run a low-grade temperature for a few days. If it is higher than 100�F, call your physician."?
• D. "Be sure to call your physician if your vaginal discharge becomes bright red."?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the postpartum client to call the physician if their vaginal discharge becomes bright red. The vaginal discharge after birth is called lochia, and a return to red or containing clots could indicate impending hemorrhage or infection, necessitating notification of the physician. Choice A is incorrect because although some tenderness may be expected, redness and fatigue are clinical manifestations of mastitis, not normal postpartum changes. Choice B is also incorrect as increased frequency of urination after vaginal delivery could indicate a urinary tract infection, not a normal postpartum change. Choice C is incorrect because running a low-grade temperature for a few days is not expected postpartum; an elevated temperature above 100�F should be reported to the physician as it could indicate infection.

4. What is an appropriate nursing goal for a client at risk for nutritional problems?

• A. provide oxygen
• B. promote healthy nutritional practices
• C. treat complications of malnutrition
• D. increase weight

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Promoting healthy nutritional practices is an appropriate nursing goal for a client at risk for nutritional problems as it focuses on preventive measures to address the risk of nutritional issues. Choice A is incorrect because providing oxygen is not related to addressing nutritional problems. Choice C is incorrect as it involves treating the consequences rather than preventing nutritional problems. Choice D is incorrect because increasing weight is only suitable if the client is underweight, not as a general preventive measure.

5. The LPN is about to give 100 mg Lopressor (metoprolol) to a client. Before administering the drug, they take the patient's vitals, which are as follows: Pulse: 58 Blood Pressure: 90/62 Respirations: 18/minute What action should the LPN take?

• A. Give the client half the prescribed dose and report the findings to the RN on duty.
• B. Give the client double the dose and report the findings to the RN on duty.
• C. Administer the drug and report the findings to the RN on duty.
• D. Hold the drug and report the findings to the RN on duty.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Lopressor is given to treat hypertension, and a pulse of 58 and a blood pressure of 90/62 are considered low. To prevent the client from bottoming out, the drug should be held, and the findings reported to the RN, who should consult with the attending physician. LPNs should never adjust client dosing, as that is outside of their scope of practice. It is crucial to follow facility guidelines, which often recommend holding blood pressure medication at 60 bpm and a systolic pressure of 90 or less. By holding the drug and notifying the RN, the LPN ensures the client's safety and allows for appropriate assessment and decision-making by the healthcare team. Giving half the dose or double the dose without proper authorization can lead to serious complications and is considered unsafe practice.

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