NCLEX-PN
NCLEX PN 2023 Quizlet
1. Levothyroxine (Synthroid) is the drug of choice for thyroid replacement therapy in clients with hypothyroidism because:
- A. it is chemically stable, nonallergenic, and can be administered orally once a day.
- B. it is available in a wide range of concentrations to meet individual client requirements.
- C. it is a prodrug of T3.
- D. it has a long half-life.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Levothyroxine (Synthroid) is the preferred medication for hypothyroidism due to its chemical stability, nonallergenic properties, and convenient once-daily oral administration. It is safe and effective with minimal side effects when appropriately dosed. Choice B is incorrect because while Levothyroxine is available in various concentrations, it is not the reason it is the drug of choice; the primary reason is its stability and nonallergenic nature. Choice C is wrong as Levothyroxine (T4) is not a prodrug of T3; it is converted to T3 in the body. Option D is inaccurate because Levothyroxine has a long half-life (around 7 days), enabling once-daily dosing, as opposed to a short half-life.
2. The healthcare provider should utilize data about which of the following to provide information about the nutritional status of a client being evaluated for malnutrition?
- A. triceps skinfold measurement
- B. fasting blood glucose level
- C. hemoglobin A1c level
- D. serum lipid profile results
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Objective anthropometric measurements such as triceps skinfold and mid-arm circumference (MAC), along with weight, are usually used to diagnose malnutrition. Triceps skinfold measurement specifically helps assess body fat and muscle mass, providing valuable information about the client's nutritional status. Fasting blood glucose level, hemoglobin A1c level, and serum lipid profile results are important tests in assessing different aspects of health such as diabetes management and cardiovascular risk, but they are not specific indicators of malnutrition.
3. Teaching about the need to avoid foods high in potassium is most important for which client?
- A. a client receiving diuretic therapy
- B. a client with an ileostomy
- C. a client with metabolic alkalosis
- D. a client with renal disease
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Clients with renal disease are predisposed to hyperkalemia and should avoid foods high in potassium. High potassium levels can further burden the kidneys and worsen the condition. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because clients receiving diuretic therapy, with an ileostomy, or with metabolic alkalosis are at risk for hypokalemia, which is low potassium levels. Therefore, these clients should actually be encouraged to eat foods high in potassium to maintain adequate levels and prevent complications associated with hypokalemia.
4. The chemotherapeutic agent 5-fluorouracil (5-FU) is ordered for a client as an adjunct measure to surgery. Which statement about chemotherapy is true?
- A. It is a local treatment affecting only tumor cells.
- B. It is a systemic treatment affecting both tumor and normal cells.
- C. It has not yet been proven an effective treatment for cancer.
- D. It is often the drug of choice because it causes few, if any, side effects.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is that chemotherapy is a systemic treatment affecting both tumor and normal cells. 5-FU, as an antimetabolic drug, inhibits DNA synthesis and interferes with cell replication systemically. It affects all rapidly growing cells, including malignant and normal ones. This drug is used as adjuvant therapy for various cancers. Choice A is incorrect because chemotherapy affects both tumor and normal cells, not just tumor cells. Choice C is incorrect as chemotherapy has been proven effective in treating cancer. Choice D is incorrect because chemotherapy often causes side effects like bone marrow depression, anorexia, stomatitis, nausea, and vomiting.
5. The client with a history of advanced chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) had conventional gallbladder surgery 2 days previously. Which intervention has priority for preventing respiratory complications?
- A. Incentive spirometry every 1 to 2 hours.
- B. Coughing and deep breathing every 1 to 2 hours.
- C. Getting the client out of bed 4 times daily as ordered by the physician.
- D. Giving oxygen at 4 L/minute according to the physician's order.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The priority intervention for preventing respiratory complications in a client with advanced COPD who underwent gallbladder surgery is to get the client out of bed 4 times daily. This helps prevent pooling of secretions in the lungs and promotes better lung expansion. Incentive spirometry, coughing, and deep breathing are essential interventions; however, they should be performed more frequently, ideally every 1 to 2 hours, rather than every 4 hours or 4 times daily. Giving oxygen at 4 L/minute could potentially decrease the client's respiratory drive, which is not the priority in this case.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX PN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access @ $69.99
NCLEX PN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access @ $149.99