NCLEX-PN
Safe and Effective Care Environment Nclex PN Questions
1. When caring for clients with Buck’s Traction, the major areas of importance should be:
- A. nutrition, elimination, comfort, safety
- B. ROM exercises, transportation
- C. nutrition, elimination, comfort, safety
- D. elimination, safety, isotonic exercises
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When caring for clients with Buck’s Traction, the major areas of importance should be nutrition, elimination, comfort, and safety. Proper nutrition, including a diet high in protein with adequate fluids, is essential for healing and recovery. Elimination refers to maintaining regular bowel and bladder function. Comfort is crucial to ensure the patient's well-being while in traction, and safety measures should be followed to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. ROM exercises are not typically a primary concern with Buck’s Traction, making choices A and B incorrect. Isotonic exercises are not specifically related to the care of a client in Buck's Traction, making choice D incorrect.
2. When the healthcare provider is determining the appropriate size of an oropharyngeal airway to insert, what part of a client's body should they measure?
- A. corner of the mouth to the tragus of the ear
- B. corner of the eye to the top of the ear
- C. tip of the chin to the sternum
- D. tip of the nose to the earlobe
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When selecting the correct size of an oropharyngeal airway, the healthcare provider should measure from the corner of the client's mouth to the tragus of the ear. This measurement ensures that the airway is the appropriate length to maintain a clear air passage for exchange. Measuring from the corner of the eye to the top of the ear (Choice B) is inaccurate and not a standard measurement for selecting the size of an oropharyngeal airway. Measuring from the tip of the chin to the sternum (Choice C) is irrelevant to determining the correct size of the airway. Similarly, measuring from the tip of the nose to the earlobe (Choice D) is also incorrect and does not provide the necessary measurement for selecting an oropharyngeal airway size.
3. Which sign might a healthcare professional observe in a client with a high ammonia level?
- A. coma
- B. edema
- C. hypoxia
- D. polyuria
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A high ammonia level can lead to hepatic encephalopathy, which includes symptoms like confusion, disorientation, and can progress to coma. Coma is a severe condition of unconsciousness. Edema is swelling caused by excess fluid trapped in body tissues, not typically associated with high ammonia levels. Hypoxia is a condition of inadequate oxygen supply to tissues and organs, not directly related to high ammonia levels. Polyuria is excessive urination, which is not a typical sign of high ammonia levels.
4. The LPN is receiving the report on a comatose client at the start of the shift at 1500. What statement should be of most concern?
- A. The client was repositioned on his right side at 1100.
- B. The client was bathed, and the skin was assessed head-to-toe at 0900 with no abnormal findings.
- C. The client's PEG tube was changed 6 months ago.
- D. The client's indwelling urinary catheter was last changed 5 days ago.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When caring for a comatose client, it is crucial to monitor and maintain the integrity of the indwelling urinary catheter to prevent urinary tract infections and other complications. Changing the urinary catheter less frequently than recommended increases the risk of infection. In this scenario, the most concerning issue is the prolonged duration since the last change of the indwelling urinary catheter, which poses an immediate risk to the client's health. While repositioning every 2 hours is essential to prevent skin breakdown, the most critical aspect in this case is the catheter care. Bathing and skin assessment are important for overall hygiene and skin integrity but are not as urgent as catheter care. The timing of the PEG tube change, while relevant for care planning, is not as immediate a concern as the indwelling urinary catheter status.
5. Which of these statements from the caregiver of a palliative care client indicates a proper understanding?
- A. This treatment plan usually indicates a prognosis of less than 6 months.
- B. We will need to stay in the hospital to receive this level of care.
- C. The main therapeutic goals are comfort and better quality of life.
- D. The medications to treat the underlying disease will be continued.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'The main therapeutic goals are comfort and better quality of life.' This statement reflects a proper understanding of palliative care, which focuses on improving the patient's quality of life and providing comfort. It does not necessarily mean a prognosis of less than 6 months or require hospitalization. Choice A is incorrect because palliative care can be provided regardless of the prognosis. Choice B is wrong as palliative care can be administered in various settings, not just hospitals. Choice D is inaccurate as palliative care aims to improve symptoms and quality of life, so medications may be adjusted but not necessarily stopped.
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