NCLEX-PN
Safe and Effective Care Environment Nclex PN Questions
1. The nurse is teaching a client about erythema infectiosum. Which of the following factors is not correct?
- A. There is no rash.
- B. The disorder is uncommon in adults.
- C. There is no fever.
- D. There is sometimes a 'slapped face' appearance.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is that the disorder is uncommon in adults. Erythema infectiosum, also known as Fifth's disease, commonly affects children and is characterized by a 'slapped face' appearance. It is associated with a rash and sometimes a low-grade fever. Therefore, the statement 'The disorder is uncommon in adults' is not correct, making it the correct answer. The other statements about the presence of a rash, 'slapped face' appearance, and the possibility of a fever are accurate in the context of erythema infectiosum.
2. Which of these types of fluid output is not typically measured?
- A. chest tube drainage
- B. emesis
- C. evaporative water from the respiratory tract
- D. urine
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'urine.' Urine output is routinely measured to assess renal function and fluid balance. Choices A, B, and C are types of fluid output that are typically measured in a clinical setting. Chest tube drainage is monitored to evaluate drainage from the chest cavity, emesis refers to vomitus which can indicate gastrointestinal issues, and evaporative water from the respiratory tract is considered insensible loss and is not directly measured but estimated in overall fluid balance assessments.
3. When the healthcare provider is determining the appropriate size of an oropharyngeal airway to insert, what part of a client's body should they measure?
- A. corner of the mouth to the tragus of the ear
- B. corner of the eye to the top of the ear
- C. tip of the chin to the sternum
- D. tip of the nose to the earlobe
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When selecting the correct size of an oropharyngeal airway, the healthcare provider should measure from the corner of the client's mouth to the tragus of the ear. This measurement ensures that the airway is the appropriate length to maintain a clear air passage for exchange. Measuring from the corner of the eye to the top of the ear (Choice B) is inaccurate and not a standard measurement for selecting the size of an oropharyngeal airway. Measuring from the tip of the chin to the sternum (Choice C) is irrelevant to determining the correct size of the airway. Similarly, measuring from the tip of the nose to the earlobe (Choice D) is also incorrect and does not provide the necessary measurement for selecting an oropharyngeal airway size.
4. Which sign might a healthcare professional observe in a client with a high ammonia level?
- A. coma
- B. edema
- C. hypoxia
- D. polyuria
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A high ammonia level can lead to hepatic encephalopathy, which includes symptoms like confusion, disorientation, and can progress to coma. Coma is a severe condition of unconsciousness. Edema is swelling caused by excess fluid trapped in body tissues, not typically associated with high ammonia levels. Hypoxia is a condition of inadequate oxygen supply to tissues and organs, not directly related to high ammonia levels. Polyuria is excessive urination, which is not a typical sign of high ammonia levels.
5. Which fetal heart monitor pattern can indicate cord compression?
- A. variable decelerations
- B. early decelerations
- C. bradycardia
- D. tachycardia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Variable decelerations can indicate cord compression as they are caused by umbilical cord compression or prolapse. This pattern shows an abrupt decrease in heart rate with an erratic shape, often resembling a V or W. Early decelerations (choice B) are typically caused by head compression during contractions and are considered benign. Bradycardia (choice C) is a consistent low heart rate below 110 bpm and is not specific to cord compression. Tachycardia (choice D) is an abnormally high heart rate above 160 bpm and is not associated with cord compression.
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