NCLEX-PN
Safe and Effective Care Environment Nclex PN Questions
1. Which fetal heart monitor pattern can indicate cord compression?
- A. variable decelerations
- B. early decelerations
- C. bradycardia
- D. tachycardia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Variable decelerations can indicate cord compression as they are caused by umbilical cord compression or prolapse. This pattern shows an abrupt decrease in heart rate with an erratic shape, often resembling a V or W. Early decelerations (choice B) are typically caused by head compression during contractions and are considered benign. Bradycardia (choice C) is a consistent low heart rate below 110 bpm and is not specific to cord compression. Tachycardia (choice D) is an abnormally high heart rate above 160 bpm and is not associated with cord compression.
2. A client with cirrhosis of the liver presents with ascites. The physician is to perform a paracentesis. For safety, the nurse should ask the client to:
- A. drink 1000 cc of fluid prior to the procedure to aid in fluid loss.
- B. eat foods low in fat.
- C. empty his bladder prior to the procedure.
- D. assume the prone position.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When performing a paracentesis, the client must be sitting up to allow the fluid to settle in the lower abdomen. To prevent trauma to the bladder while inserting a needle to aspirate the fluid, the bladder must be empty. Choice A is incorrect as excessive fluid intake can make the procedure more difficult due to increased abdominal distension. Choice B is unrelated to the procedure of paracentesis. Choice D is incorrect as the client should be sitting up, not in the prone position, during the procedure.
3. In a disaster triage situation, which of the following should the nurse be least concerned with regarding a client in crisis?
- A. ability to breathe
- B. pallor or cyanosis of the skin
- C. number of accompanying family members
- D. motor function
Correct answer: C
Rationale: During a disaster triage situation where quick decisions are crucial, the nurse's primary focus should be on factors directly related to the patient's immediate condition and survival. The ability to breathe, pallor or cyanosis of the skin, and motor function are critical indicators of a patient's health status and need for urgent intervention. In contrast, the number of accompanying family members, although important for emotional support, is not a priority when assessing and prioritizing care during a crisis. While emotional support is valuable, the focus in triage is on identifying and addressing the most critical and life-threatening issues first to maximize survival chances. Therefore, the nurse should be least concerned with the number of accompanying family members as it does not directly impact the patient's immediate medical needs in a crisis situation. Choices A, B, and D are all crucial factors to assess a client's health status and determine the urgency of intervention during a disaster triage. The ability to breathe indicates respiratory function, pallor or cyanosis of the skin reflect circulatory and oxygenation status, and motor function can hint at neurological impairment or injury, all of which are vital in determining the severity of the crisis and the immediate medical needs of the patient.
4. Which of the following statements indicates that the provider understands how to promote rest and sleep for the client?
- A. If you would prefer not to be disturbed, we can postpone all vital signs and assessments until tomorrow morning.
- B. With your physical therapy appointments, you cannot nap more during the day even if your sleep is often interrupted at nighttime.
- C. I can try to incorporate any sleep rituals or an ideal bedtime into your routine.
- D. We cannot group together medications, assessments, and other interventions so you may have multiple interruptions at night.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is, 'I can try to incorporate any sleep rituals or an ideal bedtime into your routine.' To promote rest and sleep, the provider should consider incorporating the client's preferred sleep rituals or bedtime routine. This statement shows an understanding of the importance of individualizing care to promote restful sleep. Choices A, B, and D do not directly address promoting rest and sleep. Choice A focuses on postponing assessments, Choice B addresses napping during the day, and Choice D mentions multiple interruptions at night, none of which directly support promoting rest and sleep for the client.
5. Which hormone in the urine is specifically indicative of pregnancy?
- A. estrogen
- B. progesterone
- C. testosterone
- D. human chorionic gonadotropin
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Human chorionic gonadotropin is the hormone specifically indicative of pregnancy as it is produced by the placenta after implantation. It can be detected in urine and blood samples to confirm pregnancy. Estrogen and progesterone play crucial roles in the menstrual cycle and pregnancy but are not specific indicators of pregnancy on their own. Testosterone is a hormone primarily associated with male reproductive functions and is not directly related to pregnancy, making it an incorrect choice in this context.
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