Nursing Elites

1. The nurse has a client who is being transferred to another floor right around change of shift. Which of the following actions is least appropriate?

• A. Inform the staff on the other floor of any unresolved issues with the client.
• B. Ask the charge nurse if overtime would be permitted to complete the client's transfer to the other floor.
• C. Ask the new nurse to take care of the transfer since the client's medical record has all of the information, and a report should not be needed.
• D. Complete the transfer paperwork before the client is transferred.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The least appropriate action in this scenario is to ask the new nurse to take care of the transfer without providing a full handoff of care. It is crucial to ensure a safe handoff during the transfer to maintain continuity of care and patient safety. Informing the staff on the other floor of any unresolved issues with the client (Choice A) is important for the client's well-being as it helps in providing comprehensive care. Asking the charge nurse about overtime (Choice B) demonstrates consideration for completing the task effectively, but it should not take precedence over ensuring a proper handoff. Completing the transfer paperwork before the client is transferred (Choice D) is necessary to ensure all documentation is in order, but it should be done in conjunction with providing a thorough handoff of care to the new nurse.

2. A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:

• A. naloxone (Narcan)
• B. labetalol (Normodyne)
• C. neostigmine (Prostigmin)
• D. thiothixene (Navane)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is experiencing respiratory depression due to opiate overdose. Naloxone (Narcan) is an opioid antagonist that can rapidly reverse the effects of opiates by competitively binding to opioid receptors and displacing the opiates. This action can restore normal respiration and consciousness. Labetalol (Normodyne) is a non-selective beta-blocker used to manage hypertension, not opioid-induced respiratory depression. Neostigmine (Prostigmin) is a cholinesterase inhibitor used to reverse neuromuscular blockade, not opioid overdose. Thiothixene (Navane) is an antipsychotic medication used to manage psychotic disorders, not opioid toxicity.

3. When teaching parents how their children learn sex role identification, the nurse should include which of the following statements?

• A. Sex role identification begins in infancy.
• B. Sex role identification begins in the preschool years.
• C. Sex role identification begins during the school-age years.
• D. Sex role identification begins during early adolescence.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Sex role identification begins during infancy as infants can identify body parts by the end of the first year. Preschoolers often engage in masturbation and sex play. School-age children continue to develop awareness of their sexual identity, including behaviors like hugging and kissing. Early adolescence sees further development influenced by sexual maturation and experimentation with sex roles. Therefore, the correct statement is that sex role identification begins in infancy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they misrepresent the timeline of the development of sex role identification in children.

4. When a couple experiencing infertility presents for a fertility workup, which of the following procedures should the nurse prepare the couple to have first?

• A. Hysterosalpingography
• B. Semen analysis
• C. Endometrial biopsy
• D. Transvaginal ultrasound

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Semen analysis is the most appropriate initial diagnostic test for a couple experiencing infertility. It is the least invasive of the listed tests, and since male factor infertility contributes to around 35% of cases, assessing semen parameters early is crucial. Hysterosalpingography is a radiographic test to evaluate tubal patency and uterine cavity abnormalities. Endometrial biopsy assesses endometrial receptivity post-ovulation. Transvaginal ultrasound is mainly used in infertility treatment to monitor follicle development, oocyte maturity, and luteal phase defects. Choices A, C, and D are more invasive, require specialized expertise, and are costlier. If semen analysis yields normal results, further tests may be warranted.

5. In the context of diagnostic genetic counseling, which of the following choices is typically not made by clients?

• A. Terminating the pregnancy.
• B. Preparing for the birth of a child with special needs.
• C. Accessing support services before the birth.
• D. Completing the grieving process before the birth.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In diagnostic genetic counseling, clients may face difficult decisions based on test results. Terminating the pregnancy is a choice some clients may consider if severe abnormalities are detected. Preparing for the birth of a child with special needs involves getting ready to care for a child who may require extra attention and support. Accessing support services before the birth can help clients connect with resources and professionals for assistance during and after the pregnancy. Completing the grieving process before birth is not typically a choice made in the context of genetic counseling. The grieving process often starts or continues after distressing results and can extend beyond the birth of the child. Therefore, the correct answer is completing the grieving process before the birth.

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