NCLEX-PN
NCLEX PN Exam Cram
1. In hanging a parenteral IV fluid that is to be infused by gravity, rather than with an infusion pump, the nurse notes that the IV tubing is available in different drop factors. Which tubing is a microdrop set?
- A. 15 drops per milliliter
- B. 60 drops per milliliter
- C. 20 drops per milliliter
- D. 10 drops per milliliter
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A microdrop set delivers 60 drops per milliliter of IV fluid. This allows for a more precise control of the infusion rate. The correct choice is B because it provides the desired microdrop rate. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. A delivers 15 drops per milliliter, which is a macrodrop set. C delivers 20 drops per milliliter, also a macrodrop set. D delivers 10 drops per milliliter, another macrodrop set. Therefore, the correct choice for a microdrop set is B.
2. A 27-year-old woman has delivered twins in the OB unit. The patient develops a condition of 5-centimeter diastasis recti abdominis. Which of the following statements is the most accurate when instructing the patient?
- A. Avoid sit-ups to prevent worsening the condition.
- B. Surgery is not always necessary for this condition.
- C. Guarding the abdominal region is important at this time.
- D. Antibiotics are not needed for diastasis recti abdominis.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: After experiencing diastasis recti abdominis, it is crucial for the patient to protect and guard the abdominal region to facilitate healing. Choice A is correct since avoiding sit-ups is important to prevent worsening the condition by increasing intra-abdominal pressure. Choice B is accurate as not all cases of diastasis recti abdominis require surgery; conservative management is often effective. Choice D is also correct as antibiotics are not indicated for diastasis recti abdominis since it is a separation of the abdominal muscles and not an infectious condition.
3. A nurse has been ordered to administer Morphine to a patient. Which of the following effects is unrelated to Morphine's effects on the patient?
- A. Depressed function of the CNS
- B. Increased blood flow
- C. Decreased venous capacity
- D. Pain relief
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Morphine is a narcotic analgesic that acts centrally to relieve pain by binding to opioid receptors in the CNS, leading to the depressed function of the CNS. Morphine also causes peripheral vasodilation, which can lead to increased blood flow. However, morphine causes venous dilation and increased venous capacity rather than decreased venous capacity. Therefore, the effect of 'Decreased venous capacity' is unrelated to Morphine's effects. Pain relief is a well-known effect of Morphine, as it acts on the CNS to alter the perception of pain.
4. A nurse is covering a pediatric unit and is responsible for a 15-year-old male patient on the floor. The mother of the child states, "I think my son is sexually interested in girls."? The most appropriate course of action for the nurse is to respond by stating:
- A. "I will talk to the doctor about it."?
- B. "Has this been going on for a while?"?
- C. "How do you know this?"?
- D. "Teenagers often exhibit signs of sexual interest in females."?
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The most appropriate response for the nurse in this situation is to acknowledge that teenagers often exhibit signs of sexual interest in females. This response normalizes the mother's concern and provides reassurance that such behavior is typical during adolescence. Option A deflects the conversation to the doctor without addressing the mother's concern directly. Option B focuses on the duration rather than addressing the mother's statement. Option C may come off as defensive or dismissive, questioning the mother's observation. Therefore, the best response is to acknowledge the normalcy of teenage behavior regarding sexual interest.
5. Which of the following is not typically considered one of the main mechanisms of Type II Diabetes treatment?
- A. Medications
- B. Nutrition
- C. Increased activity
- D. Continuous Insulin
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Continuous Insulin is not typically considered one of the main mechanisms for treating Type II Diabetes. While medications, nutrition, and increased activity play crucial roles in managing Type II Diabetes, continuous insulin therapy is more common in Type I Diabetes or in specific cases of Type II Diabetes where other treatments are ineffective. Therefore, the correct answer is Continuous Insulin. Choices A, B, and C are mainstays in the treatment of Type II Diabetes, making them incorrect answers.
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