Nursing Elites

1. How often should the nurse change the intravenous tubing on total parenteral nutrition solutions?

• A. every 24 hours
• B. every 36 hours
• C. every 48 hours
• D. every 72 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'every 24 hours.' Changing the intravenous tubing on total parenteral nutrition solutions every 24 hours is crucial due to the high risk of bacterial growth. Bacterial contamination can lead to serious infections in patients receiving total parenteral nutrition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because waiting longer intervals between tubing changes increases the risk of bacterial contamination and infection, compromising patient safety. It is essential to maintain a strict 24-hour schedule to minimize the risk of complications associated with bacterial contamination.

2. A nurse demonstrates the procedure for bathing a newborn to a new mother. The next day, the nurse watches as the mother bathes the infant. The nurse determines that the mother is performing the procedure correctly if the mother performs which action?

• A. Uses a cotton-tipped swab to carefully clean inside the infant's nose
• B. Uncovers only the body part being washed
• C. Washes the diaper area first
• D. Washes the infant's chest first

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When bathing a newborn, it is crucial to follow a specific sequence for thorough cleaning and safety. The correct sequence includes starting with the eyes and face, then moving to the external ear, areas behind the ears, neck, hands, arms, legs, and finally the diaper area. Keeping the infant warm is essential, so only the body part being washed should be uncovered. Using a cotton-tipped swab to clean inside the infant's nose is not recommended due to the risk of injury if the infant moves suddenly. Washing the diaper area first is incorrect as it should be done towards the end of the bath to prevent contamination. Washing the infant's chest first is also incorrect as it deviates from the recommended bathing sequence for a newborn.

3. Which of the following are included in the Rights of Medication Administration? Select all that apply.

• A. Right dose, right time, right explanation, right client, right route
• B. Right dose, right time, right client, right route
• C. Right dose, right time, right client
• D. Right time, right explanation, right client

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Rights of Medication Administration include the right client, right drug, right dose, right route, and right time. An additional right that is sometimes included is the right documentation. The correct answer includes the essential rights that must be ensured during medication administration. Choice A is incorrect as 'right explanation' is not part of the traditional Rights of Medication Administration. Choice B is incorrect as 'right explanation' is not included, and choice C is missing the right route. Choice D is incorrect as it lacks the right dose and right route.

4. A hepatitis B screen is performed on a pregnant client, and the results indicate the presence of antigens in the client's blood. On the basis of this finding, the nurse makes which determination?

• A. Hepatitis immune globulin and vaccine will be administered to the newborn infant soon after birth
• B. The results are negative.
• C. The results indicate that the mother does not have hepatitis B
• D. The client needs to receive the hepatitis B series of vaccines.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A hepatitis B screen is performed to identify antigens in maternal blood. If antigens are present, it indicates that the mother is a carrier, and the newborn will need to receive hepatitis immune globulin and vaccine soon after birth to prevent transmission. Therefore, choice A is correct. Choices B and C are incorrect because the presence of antigens indicates a positive result, not a negative one or the absence of hepatitis B in the mother. Choice D is incorrect as it suggests the client needs to receive the hepatitis B series of vaccines, which is not the immediate action required when antigens are found in the maternal blood.

5. A client is pregnant for the sixth time. She tells the nurse that she has had three elective first-trimester abortions and that she has a son who was born at 40 weeks' gestation and a daughter who was born at 36 weeks' gestation. In calculating the gravidity and para (parity), the nurse determines that the client is:

• A. Gravida 2, para 6
• B. Gravida 6, para 2
• C. Gravida 3, para 6
• D. Gravida 2, para 2

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The term gravida refers to the number of pregnancies, of any duration, that a woman has had. Parity (para) refers to the number of pregnancies that have progressed past 20 weeks at delivery. Therefore, this client is gravida 6 (pregnant for the sixth time), para 2 (has a son and a daughter). In this case, the correct answer is Gravida 6, para 2. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the information provided. Pregnancy outcomes are often described using the GTPAL acronym: gravida (G), term births (T), preterm births (P), abortions (A), and live births (L). Applying this to the client's history, the GTPAL would be G = 6, T = 1, P = 1, A = 3, L = 2, which further confirms the correct answer.

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