NCLEX-PN
Nclex Practice Questions 2024
1. A client with cancer develops xerostomia. The nurse can help alleviate the discomfort associated with xerostomia by:
- A. Offering hard candy
- B. Administering analgesic medications
- C. Splinting swollen joints
- D. Providing saliva substitute
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Xerostomia is dry mouth, a common side effect in cancer patients. Providing a saliva substitute helps alleviate the discomfort associated with dry mouth by moistening the oral mucosa. Offering hard candy, as mentioned in choice A, can worsen xerostomia by increasing sugar content and potentially causing irritation. Administering analgesic medications, as in choice B, is not directly related to treating dry mouth. Splinting swollen joints, as in choice C, is irrelevant to xerostomia, which primarily affects the oral cavity.
2. The client with a myocardial infarction comes to the nurse's station stating that he is ready to go home because there is nothing wrong with him. Which defense mechanism is the client using?
- A. Rationalization
- B. Denial
- C. Projection
- D. Conversion reaction
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Denial. The client displaying denial refuses to acknowledge the reality of having a myocardial infarction. Rationalization (choice A) involves making excuses for behavior, not denying a condition. Projection (choice C) is attributing one's thoughts or feelings to others, not denying an illness. Conversion reaction (choice D) is converting psychological distress into physical symptoms, which is not evident in this scenario. Therefore, denial is the defense mechanism being used in this situation.
3. The client is scheduled for a pericentesis. Which instruction should be given to the client before the exam?
- A. "You will need to lie flat during the exam."?
- B. "You need to empty your bladder before the procedure."?
- C. "You will be asleep during the procedure."?
- D. "The doctor will inject a medication to treat your illness during the procedure."?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The client scheduled for a pericentesis should be instructed to empty the bladder to prevent the risk of bladder puncture when the needle is inserted. A pericentesis involves removing fluid from the peritoneal cavity. The client is typically positioned sitting up or leaning over a table, making answer A incorrect. During a pericentesis, the client is usually awake, so answer C is incorrect. Medications are not commonly injected into the peritoneal cavity during this procedure, making answer D incorrect. However, it's important to note that the administration of medications during the procedure could vary based on specific circumstances.
4. A client receiving preoperative instructions asks questions repeatedly about when to stop eating the night before the procedure. The nurse tries to refocus the client. The nurse notes that the client is frequently startled by noises in the hall. Assessment reveals rapid speech, trembling hands, tachypnea, tachycardia, and elevated blood pressure. The client admits to feeling nervous and having trouble sleeping. Based on the assessment, the nurse documents that the client has:
- A. mild anxiety.
- B. moderate anxiety.
- C. severe anxiety.
- D. a panic attack.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'severe anxiety.' In severe anxiety, a person focuses on small or scattered details and is unable to solve problems. The client's symptoms of rapid speech, trembling hands, tachypnea, tachycardia, elevated blood pressure, feeling nervous, and having trouble sleeping indicate severe anxiety. Mild anxiety enhances the ability to learn and solve problems, while moderate anxiety narrows the perceptual field but allows the client to notice things brought to their attention. During a panic attack, a person is disorganized, hyperactive, or unable to speak or act, which is not the case in this scenario.
5. The physician has ordered a culture for the client with suspected gonorrhea. The nurse should obtain which type of culture?
- A. Blood
- B. Nasopharyngeal secretions
- C. Stool
- D. Genital secretions
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A culture for gonorrhea is taken from the genital secretions as gonorrhea primarily affects the genital area. The culture is incubated in a warm environment to promote the growth of Neisseria gonorrhoeae, the bacterium causing gonorrhea. Genital secretions provide a direct sample from the site of infection, increasing the accuracy of diagnosis. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they are not suitable specimens for diagnosing gonorrhea. Blood cultures are used to detect bloodstream infections, nasopharyngeal secretions are collected for respiratory infections, and stool cultures are done to identify gastrointestinal infections, none of which are related to gonorrhea.
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