Nursing Elites

1. A client with massive chest and head injuries is admitted to the ICU from the Emergency Department. All of the following are true except:

• A. The physician in charge of the case is the sole person allowed to decide whether organ donation can occur.
• B. The client's legally responsible party may make the decision for organ donation for the donor if the client is unable to do so.
• C. The organ procurement organization makes the decision regarding which organs to harvest.
• D. The donor (or legally responsible party for the donor), the physician, and the organ-procurement organization are all involved in the process.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: While the physician plays a crucial role in the process of organ donation, they are not the sole decision-maker. The client's legally responsible party may make the decision for organ donation if the client is unable to do so. Additionally, the organ procurement organization is responsible for determining which organs are suitable for donation. Therefore, the statement that the physician in charge is the sole person allowed to decide whether organ donation can occur is incorrect. The correct answer is A. Choices B, C, and D are true statements as they highlight the involvement of the legally responsible party, the organ procurement organization, and the donor/legally responsible party, physician, and organ-procurement organization in the organ donation process respectively.

2. A client has just returned from surgery where a femoral-popliteal bypass was performed. The nurse has assessed the client and is unable to feel a pulse at either the dorsalis pedis or the posterior tibial sites of the left foot. The foot feels warm, and the color is pink. What action should the nurse perform next to prevent ischemia?

• A. Notify the physician immediately
• B. Obtain a Doppler device to check for pulses, and notify the physician if they are still absent
• C. Wait 30 minutes and recheck the pulses
• D. Document the finding

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should immediately obtain a Doppler device and recheck the pulses. The dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses can be difficult to assess and might need to be verified with a Doppler device. Since the client just had surgery with a risk of arterial insufficiency, close monitoring is crucial. If pulses are not palpable, it indicates an emergent situation requiring immediate physician notification. Waiting 30 minutes before reassessment could lead to foot ischemia. While documenting findings is essential, it should follow pulse confirmation or necessary interventions to ensure the client's foot viability.

3. A woman in labor whose cervix is not completely dilated is pushing strenuously during contractions. Which method of breathing should the nurse encourage the woman to perform to help her overcome the urge to push?

• A. Holding her breath and using the Valsalva maneuver
• B. Blowing repeatedly in short puffs
• C. Cleansing breaths
• D. Deep inspiration and expiration at the beginning and end, respectively, of each contraction

Correct answer: B

Rationale: If a woman pushes strenuously before the cervix is completely dilated, she risks injury to the cervix and the fetal head. Blowing prevents closure of the glottis and breath-holding, helping overcome the urge to push strenuously. The woman would be encouraged to blow repeatedly, using short puffs, when the urge to push is strong. This breathing technique allows for controlled exhalation and helps prevent unnecessary pushing. Cleansing breaths (deep inspiration and expiration at the beginning and end of each contraction) are encouraged during the first stage of labor to provide oxygenation and reduce myometrial hypoxia and to promote relaxation. Holding her breath and using the Valsalva maneuver (choice A) is not recommended as it can increase intra-abdominal pressure and decrease venous return, potentially compromising fetal oxygenation. Deep inspiration and expiration at the beginning and end of each contraction (choice D) are more suitable for relaxation and oxygenation purposes rather than managing the urge to push.

4. Which of the following vaccines is not part of the regular schedule of immunizations for children?

• A. DTaP
• B. MMR
• C. Hib
• D. hepatitis A

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is hepatitis A. DTaP, MMR, and Hib are all part of the regular schedule of immunizations for children to protect them against diseases like diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, measles, mumps, rubella, and Haemophilus influenzae type b. Hepatitis A vaccine is not included in the routine childhood immunization schedule but may be recommended in certain situations or regions where the disease is more prevalent. Hepatitis A is generally considered an optional vaccine for children but can be administered based on specific risk factors or regional guidelines.

5. A nurse monitoring a newborn infant notes that the infant's respirations are 40 breaths/min. On the basis of this finding, what is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?

• A. Contacting the registered nurse
• B. Documenting the findings
• C. Wrapping an extra blanket around the infant
• D. Placing the infant in an oxygen tent

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The normal respiratory rate of a newborn infant is 30 to 60 breaths/min, with an average of 40. Since the infant's respiratory rate falls within the normal range, the most appropriate action for the nurse is to document the findings. Contacting the registered nurse, placing the infant in an oxygen tent, or wrapping an extra blanket around the infant are unnecessary actions as the respiratory rate is normal. Documenting the findings is important to provide a record of the assessment and serve as a baseline for future comparisons if needed.

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