NCLEX-PN
Nclex Exam Cram Practice Questions
1. An 85-year-old client is eligible for Medicare-reimbursable home care services. Referral is contingent on meeting which of the following criteria?
- A. homebound status, requiring skilled therapy care
- B. immediate previous hospitalization for acute care
- C. age
- D. requirement of nursing and social work support
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct criteria for Medicare-reimbursable home care services include the client being homebound and requiring a skilled service, such as physical therapy, occupational therapy, speech therapy, nursing, or social work. Choice A is correct because it aligns with these requirements. Choice B is incorrect as immediate previous hospitalization is not a prerequisite for home care services. Choice C is incorrect as age alone does not determine eligibility for Medicare-reimbursable home care services. Choice D is incorrect as the requirement of nursing and social work support alone is not sufficient for Medicare-reimbursable home care services.
2. A safety measure to implement when transferring a client with hemiparesis from a bed to a wheelchair is:
- A. standing the client and walking him or her to the wheelchair.
- B. moving the wheelchair close to the client's bed and standing and pivoting the client on his unaffected extremity to the wheelchair.
- C. moving the wheelchair close to the client's bed and standing and pivoting the client on his affected extremity to the wheelchair.
- D. having the client stand and push his body to the wheelchair.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When transferring a client with hemiparesis from a bed to a wheelchair, it is crucial to ensure their safety. The correct safety measure involves moving the wheelchair close to the client's bed and having the client stand and pivot on his unaffected extremity to the wheelchair. This method provides support with the unaffected limb, reducing the risk of falls and promoting a safer transfer. Choice A is incorrect because walking the client is unsafe and not recommended. Choice C is incorrect as pivoting the client on his affected extremity can lead to injury or falls due to weakness or lack of control. Choice D is incorrect as it puts the client at risk by requiring them to push their body, which may not be feasible or safe for someone with hemiparesis.
3. The nurse is preparing to administer IV Vancomycin to a client. Which of the following nursing actions should be taken first?
- A. Performing a physical assessment prior to administration
- B. Obtaining the most recent lab values regarding renal function
- C. Reviewing peaks and troughs for the past few days
- D. Ensuring the client is not allergic to the medication
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Before administering any medication, including IV Vancomycin, it is crucial to ensure that the client is not allergic to the medication. This is the most critical action to prevent any potential allergic reactions. While performing a physical assessment is important, it may not be as time-sensitive as checking for allergies. Obtaining lab values related to renal function is also significant with Vancomycin due to its potential nephrotoxicity, but ensuring the client's safety by checking for allergies takes precedence. Reviewing peaks and troughs is important for monitoring drug levels, but it is a secondary step compared to checking for allergies prior to administration.
4. A risk management program within a hospital is responsible for all of the following except:
- A. identifying risks.
- B. controlling financial loss due to malpractice claims.
- C. ensuring that staff follow their job descriptions.
- D. analyzing risks and trends to guide further interventions or programs.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A risk management program within a hospital is responsible for identifying risks, controlling financial loss due to malpractice claims, and analyzing risks and trends to guide further interventions or programs. It is not responsible for ensuring that staff follow their job descriptions. Monitoring staff adherence to their job descriptions falls under the purview of departmental managers or supervisors. The primary focus of a risk management program is to assess, mitigate, and manage risks related to patient safety, quality of care, and financial implications, rather than overseeing staff job descriptions.
5. What is the appropriate intervention for a client who is restrained?
- A. Remove the restraints and provide skin care every hour.
- B. Document the condition of the client's skin every 3 hours.
- C. Assess the restraint every 30 minutes
- D. Tie the restraint to the side rails.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct intervention when a client is restrained is to assess the restraint every 30 minutes. This ensures the safety and well-being of the client by checking for proper fit, circulation, and signs of distress. Removing restraints and providing skin care every hour may not be necessary and could increase the risk of skin breakdown. Documenting the skin condition every 3 hours is important but not the immediate intervention needed when a client is restrained. Tying the restraint to the side rails is unsafe and can cause harm to the client, as restraints should be secured to the bed frame or an immovable part of the bed.
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