NCLEX-PN
Nclex Exam Cram Practice Questions
1. The nurse is teaching a client about communicable diseases and explains that a portal of entry is:
- A. a vector.
- B. a source, like contaminated water.
- C. food.
- D. the respiratory system.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'the respiratory system.' A portal of entry is the path through which a microorganism enters the body. In the case of communicable diseases, the respiratory system can serve as a portal of entry for pathogens such as viruses or bacteria. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. A 'vector' is an organism that transmits disease, not the entry point for pathogens. Contaminated water or food can act as sources or reservoirs of disease-causing microorganisms, not portals of entry.
2. Which of the following might be an appropriate nursing diagnosis for an epileptic client?
- A. Dysreflexia
- B. Risk for Injury
- C. Urinary Retention
- D. Unbalanced Nutrition
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct nursing diagnosis for an epileptic client would be 'Risk for Injury' as the client is prone to injuries during seizure activity, such as head trauma from falls. Epilepsy does not typically cause dysreflexia. While urinary retention may occur during or after a seizure, it is not a common nursing diagnosis related to epilepsy. 'Unbalanced Nutrition' is not a priority nursing diagnosis for an epileptic client compared to the immediate risk of injury during seizures.
3. In an emergency situation where a client is unconscious and requires immediate surgery, what action is necessary with regard to informed consent?
- A. The healthcare team will proceed with the surgery as consent is not needed in emergencies.
- B. The healthcare team will wait until the client's family can be contacted for consent.
- C. The healthcare team will contact the hospital clergy to provide informed consent.
- D. The healthcare team will obtain consent from the client's legal guardian before proceeding.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In emergency situations where obtaining consent is not possible due to the client's condition, healthcare providers are allowed to perform life-saving procedures without informed consent. It is assumed that the client would want to receive necessary treatment to save their life. Therefore, the correct action is for the healthcare team to proceed with the surgery as consent is not needed. Waiting to contact the client's family for consent can delay life-saving treatment, risking the client's life. Contacting the hospital clergy for consent is unnecessary and can cause further delays. Obtaining consent from the client's legal guardian is not feasible in this critical situation and may lead to a delay in providing essential care.
4. Why is client and family communication and education concerning restraints essential?
- A. confuses both groups further
- B. helps with coping and stress levels
- C. encourages cooperation with the client and family
- D. puts the responsibility on the client and family, not the nurse
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Client and family communication and education concerning restraints are essential to encourage cooperation. When the client and family understand the purpose and expected benefits of restraints, they are more likely to cooperate. This understanding can help prevent well-meaning family members from releasing restraints due to confusion or lack of information. Therefore, choice C is correct. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because confusing both groups further, helping with coping and stress levels, and shifting responsibility to the client and family are not the primary goals of communication and education concerning restraints.
5. Hearing screening of prematurely born infants is an effective means of identifying disease and is an example of:
- A. Primary prevention.
- B. Secondary prevention.
- C. Tertiary prevention.
- D. Disability prevention.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Secondary prevention. Hearing screening for prematurely born infants falls under secondary prevention, which aims to identify and treat a condition in its early stages to prevent further complications. Primary prevention (choice A) focuses on preventing the disease from occurring, while tertiary prevention (choice C) involves managing complications and preventing disability. Choice D, disability prevention, is not a recognized category of prevention. In this context, the screening helps in early identification of hearing loss, allowing for timely intervention to prevent further impairment or complications, aligning with the principles of secondary prevention.
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