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Nursing Elites

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Nclex Exam Cram Practice Questions

1. A Hispanic client brings her father to the clinic because he is becoming more forgetful. He is diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease. The woman tells the nurse that she wants to try ginkgo biloba for her father before using prescription medications. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The appropriate response is to acknowledge the client's wishes and communicate them to the physician for consideration. It is important to be culturally sensitive and respect the client's preferences. Ginkgo biloba has shown some benefits in treating dementia, so it is essential to involve the healthcare provider in the decision-making process. Choices A, B, and C are dismissive and fail to consider the client's perspective and cultural beliefs. It is crucial for healthcare professionals to engage in open communication and collaboration with clients to provide patient-centered care.

2. What condition is mammography used to detect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Mammography is specifically used to detect tumors or abnormal growths, especially in breast tissue. It is not a tool for identifying pain, edema, or epilepsy. Therefore, the correct answer is 'tumor.' Pain is a symptom, edema is swelling, and epilepsy is a neurological disorder; none of these are conditions typically detected through mammography.

3. Hearing screening of prematurely born infants is an effective means of identifying disease and is an example of:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Secondary prevention. Hearing screening for prematurely born infants falls under secondary prevention, which aims to identify and treat a condition in its early stages to prevent further complications. Primary prevention (choice A) focuses on preventing the disease from occurring, while tertiary prevention (choice C) involves managing complications and preventing disability. Choice D, disability prevention, is not a recognized category of prevention. In this context, the screening helps in early identification of hearing loss, allowing for timely intervention to prevent further impairment or complications, aligning with the principles of secondary prevention.

4. What is the appropriate intervention for a client who is restrained?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention when a client is restrained is to assess the restraint every 30 minutes. This ensures the safety and well-being of the client by checking for proper fit, circulation, and signs of distress. Removing restraints and providing skin care every hour may not be necessary and could increase the risk of skin breakdown. Documenting the skin condition every 3 hours is important but not the immediate intervention needed when a client is restrained. Tying the restraint to the side rails is unsafe and can cause harm to the client, as restraints should be secured to the bed frame or an immovable part of the bed.

5. What is the most likely reason for a hospitalized adult client who routinely works from midnight until 8 a.m. to have a temperature of 99.1�F at 4 a.m.?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'circadian rhythm.' Circadian rhythms are biological cycles that last about 24 hours. The sleep-wake cycle is closely tied to circadian rhythms, affecting body temperature. Normally, core body temperature drops during sleep, reaching its 24-hour low around 4 a.m. In this case, the client's temperature of 99.1�F at 4 a.m. is likely due to the disruption of their circadian rhythm caused by working from midnight until 8 a.m. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because delta sleep, slow brain waves, and pneumonia do not directly explain the temperature fluctuation based on circadian rhythm.

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ATI TEAS 7 Exam Overview

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