NCLEX-PN
Nclex 2024 Questions
1. Which client can best be assigned to the newly licensed practical nurse?
- A. The client receiving chemotherapy
- B. The client post-coronary bypass
- C. The client with a TURP
- D. The client with diverticulitis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The best client to assign to the newly licensed nurse is the most stable client. In this case, the client with diverticulitis is the most stable among the options provided. Clients receiving chemotherapy and those post-coronary bypass require specialized care and attention, making them unsuitable for a newly licensed nurse. The client with a TURP may be at risk of bleeding, needing a nurse experienced in managing such complications. Therefore, the client with diverticulitis is the most appropriate choice for the newly licensed practical nurse.
2. A client has been taking alprazolam (Xanax) for four years to manage anxiety. The client reports taking 0.5 mg four times a day. Which statement indicates that the client understands the nurse's teaching about discontinuing the medication?
- A. "I can drink alcohol now that I am decreasing my Xanax."?
- B. "I should not take another Xanax pill. Here is what is left of my last prescription."?
- C. "I should take three pills per day next week, then two pills for one week, then one pill for one week."?
- D. "I can expect to be sleepy for several days after stopping the medicine."?
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Explanation: When discontinuing alprazolam (Xanax) after long-term use, it is crucial to taper the dosage gradually to prevent withdrawal symptoms. The correct statement indicates an understanding of this by planning a structured decrease in dosage over time. Choice A is incorrect as drinking alcohol while decreasing Xanax can be dangerous and is not recommended. Choice B is incorrect as abruptly stopping Xanax is not safe and can lead to withdrawal symptoms. Choice D is incorrect as expecting to be sleepy for several days after stopping the medication does not address the need for a gradual tapering process to avoid withdrawal symptoms.
3. During the history assessment of an 80-year-old client, which statement made by the client might indicate a possible fluid and electrolyte imbalance?
- A. "My skin is always so dry."?
- B. "I often use a laxative for constipation."?
- C. "I have always liked to drink a lot of iced tea."?
- D. "I sometimes have a problem with dribbling urine."?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is "I often use a laxative for constipation." Frequent use of laxatives can lead to diarrhea and electrolyte loss, indicating a possible fluid and electrolyte imbalance. Statements A, C, and D are not directly related to fluid and electrolyte imbalance. Statement A about dry skin may suggest dehydration, but it is less specific to electrolyte imbalance than the frequent use of laxatives. Statement C about drinking a lot of iced tea could potentially relate to fluid intake, but it doesn't directly indicate an imbalance. Statement D about dribbling urine is more indicative of a potential urinary issue rather than a fluid and electrolyte imbalance.
4. The client with diverticulosis is being assisted by the nurse in selecting appropriate foods. Which food should be avoided?
- A. Bran
- B. Fresh peaches
- C. Cucumber salad
- D. Yeast rolls
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The food that should be avoided for a client with diverticulosis is Cucumber salad. Foods with seeds should be avoided as they can aggravate diverticulosis by causing irritation and inflammation in the diverticula. Choices A, B, and D are allowed and even beneficial. Bran cereal and fruit like fresh peaches can help prevent constipation, which is beneficial for individuals with diverticulosis. Yeast rolls are also acceptable unless the client has specific dietary restrictions related to yeast or gluten.
5. The home health nurse is planning for the day's visits. Which client should be seen first?
- A. The 78-year-old who had a gastrectomy 3 weeks ago with a PEG tube
- B. The 5-month-old discharged 1 week ago with pneumonia who is being treated with amoxicillin liquid suspension
- C. The 50-year-old with MRSA being treated with Vancomycin via a PICC line
- D. The 30-year-old with an exacerbation of multiple sclerosis being treated with cortisone via a centrally placed venous catheter
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The priority client is the 30-year-old with an exacerbation of multiple sclerosis being treated with cortisone via a centrally placed venous catheter. This client is at the highest risk for complications and requires immediate attention. Choice C, the 50-year-old with MRSA being treated with Vancomycin via a PICC line, is incorrect as Vancomycin administration can be scheduled at specific times and does not indicate an urgent need for a visit. Choices A and B are also incorrect as these clients are more stable compared to the client with multiple sclerosis in need of cortisone therapy.
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